musterion
Well-known member
The roots of Preterism are the RCC and the so called ECF.
What's their history spell out?
R-A-B-I-D...A-N-T-I-S-E-M-E-T-I-S-M...
Yup, but remind me...ECF?
The roots of Preterism are the RCC and the so called ECF.
What's their history spell out?
R-A-B-I-D...A-N-T-I-S-E-M-E-T-I-S-M...
Yup, but remind me...ECF?
Early Church FathersYup, but remind me...ECF?
The people who believed the historic Gospel of Christ fulfilling all the promises to the fathers
Early Church Fathers
"Historic" Gospel of Christ?
Anyway.
Was there ever a promise to the fathers that God could bless the heathen world entirely apart from -- indeed, in spite of -- His chosen people? Do us a big and post C&V if you know of it in the Bible before Paul said anything about it.
Abraham's blessing is for all people.
It comes through the Jews but is not just for them.
It does not come through all of them as can be seen in places like Isaiah, where God is pretty much tired of them.
It comes through the Seed who is Christ, Gal 3:16. The mission to the nations is in many places in Isaiah. The raising of David's fallen tent is the nations coming into the blessing, says Amos 9 (Acts 15)
IP, do you believe that you, personally, are among those who have forever replaced Israel in the favor of God?
God's favor is through Christ. God has bound all men over to sin, so that he might have mercy on them all in Christ by faith in Christ.
The real Biblical problem is that Judaism replaced the Promise with the Law and voided the Promise, Gal 3:17. They thought the seed was the nation or ethne, not Christ.
NT teaching is consistently that everything is in and through Christ.
This is why there are no Judaic or Judean/land details about the 2nd coming in the NT plain language passages. And the jury is out about the Rev being futurist. The 2nd coming in judgement does not 'need' anything to happen in Israel in order to take place. Why would it? In fact, it is a very fast move from Christ slaying his enemies in the last little rebellion of Rev 20 and the NHNE. There's no time, but people can learn to see that the OT visions were attempts to show us the glory of the church and the NHNE.
I know of no place where such OT passages are taken literally, and therefore a separate program, by Christ or the apostles.
Again, none of that addresses what I asked you.
Either you are a deliberately dishonest weasel (my personal belief) or you really are an imbecile who can't actually comprehend simple, direct questioning.
Some of them, not all of them.Abraham's blessing is for all people.
I agree. Ryrie makes many very good points as the why we should understand the Bible dispensationaly. But he is also very confused by placing the dispensation of the grace of God as starting in Acts 2.Many external sources have their good points, at times.
Even the heretic: Clement of Alexandria (a works salvationist) nevertheless did a great job of showing the Greeks had basically borrowed much ripped of the OT.
Some of them, not all of them.
Some of them were specifically for Israel.
Which is why Paul refers to the blessings/promises BEFORE Abe was told to be circumcised as a sign of the covenant. (Genesis 17)
Things that differ are not the same.
You have been given chapters that do.but the NT never mentions the land blessing.
You have been given chapters that do.
You should have read them 10x.
And why do I care what Ryrie thinks?
It really funny how fixated you are on Paul preaching Christ in a synagogue to the "Men of Israel, and ye that fear God" and " Men [and] brethren, children of the stock of Abraham, and whosoever among you feareth God" (Act 13:16 & 26).
This entire passage simply shows Israel's continued rejection of their Messiah, which is the primary purpose of the book of Acts.
I'm very curious to understand THIS verse in light of the alleged removal of all "ethnic distinctions" at that precise time of the cross as you and many other claim.
Acts 13:46 (AKJV/PCE)
(13:46) Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles.
WHY was it "necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you"?
Your other compulsive disorder of the book TO THE HEBREWS is also fascinating. Everything in Hebrews and Revelation is completely and totally SATURATED with Israel
Heb 12:25-29 (AKJV/PCE)(12:25) See that ye refuse not him that speaketh. For if they escaped not who refused him that spake on earth, much more [shall not] we [escape], if we turn away from him that [speaketh] from heaven: (12:26) Whose voice then shook the earth: but now he hath promised, saying, Yet once more I shake not the earth only, but also heaven. (12:27) And this [word], Yet once more, signifieth the removing of those things that are shaken, as of things that are made, that those things which cannot be shaken may remain. (12:28) Wherefore we receiving a kingdom which cannot be moved, let us have grace, whereby we may serve God acceptably with reverence and godly fear: (12:29) For our God [is] a consuming fire.
The WE throughout HEBREWS is the HEBREWS. The WE receiving the kingdom is the HEBREWS (i.e., Israel).
When does Paul call OUR God a "consuming fire"? God is NOT spoken of this way in THIS dispensation of God's GRACE!