lain: And?Indeed, but the body of Christ is a NEW CREATURE.
More than you know.[/QUOTE]
lain: And?Indeed, but the body of Christ is a NEW CREATURE.
What did it accomplish for those that don't get salvation?
Come on, EE, have the balls to nut up and answer.
What exactly did Christ's death do for those that do not get salvation????????
Can you substantiate your own argument or not?
Okay...
Short answer...
Jesus Death Saved all mankind from the clutches of Spiritual blindness and the “inescapable” condemnation of the “first physical death”. More specifically, John 12:32 shows that God can communicate with and “draw” “ALL” men to Himself, because Jesus Died for “ALL Men”, as 1 John 2:2 states... 1 Timothy 4:10, as well. I also recognize mankind’s free will to reject Christ’s Drawing Gesture of “Scandalous Love” towards all sinners.
To answer your “loaded” question in its’ false and originally intended expression, that refers to eternal life with Christ...
Long Answer...
Earlier... I stated that Universalism and Limited Atonement both arrogantly claim to know the will of God.
For that matter... all conclusions about final judgment are attempts to speak for God as scripture says something very important I never deviate from...
Isaiah 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure
I get tired of people passing Salvic judgment on others and thus... I give all Glory to Jesus (The Word of God)... and recognize He has the final say... and thus... I exalt God far above even scriptural disputes in such matters and say...
“He can do whatever the Hell He wants... because He’s God”...
I do believe we had this conversation as I introduced a sock called “James Dalton” because I was sick of debating without rebuttal... so I went on as a noob and discussed this very thing with “whosoever” would bite...
And lookey here...
Deja Vu Link
And what? I still say God Alone knows the answer to your question...
He alone has final Salvic say...
He's just like God's UNtruth.
He demands answers but will give none of his own.
It's a god complex.
What exactly did Christ's death do for those that do not get salvation????????
All who believe, what's so confusing about that? Not all believe.@glorydaz and @Tambora agree with you... per their failure to answer if Jesus died for all as 1 John 2:2 and 1 Timothy 4:10 say.
I’m pretty sure @patrick jane agrees too...
Since they don’t have the Balls to nut up and shut up the “Jesus didn’t die for all crowd”...
Congratulations on your Pharisees following. :e4e:
That's a good question, and whatever is the answer, will explain 1st Timothy 4:10 (KJV), and why He is the Savior of anybody other than His Church, the Elect, the Body of Christ; believers. At least in some sense, He is NOT the Savior of unbelievers. Whatever way that is, is precisely NOT what 1st Timothy 4:10 (KJV) means, in saying He is the Savior of all.What exactly did Christ's death do for those that do not get salvation????????
What did it accomplish for those that don't get salvation?
This is the second time you have said this.
Here is the other place.
This is based on a false premise.
Refusal is not based on giving. It is based on offering.
A gift is only a gift when it is accepted as such and received.
It can be purchased as a potential gift based on offering and acceptance.
But it requires both parties to participate.
Until it is accepted it is still just your personal property, regardless of your intentions.
If the government passes a law to give a rebate of $50 to every taxpayer and some never apply for it or accept it, it is not a rebate. It is still only a potential benefit.
We colloquially use the word "gift" assuming the second part of the contract will follow. But if it doesn't, for some reason, it is ineffectual and no longer a gift.
For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ. Rom 5:17KJV
In the case of the unbeliever, the blood gift has not been received and has, therefore, not been applied. There are none who, having been offered the free gift of Jesus' blood as a sacrifice for sin, and having rejected the offer, are in possession of the gift. It has been offered but not given. This is one of the limiting factors of the doctrine of limited atonement.
There is nothing in that hodgepodge that says what Christ's death did for those that do not get salvation.I nailed your dishonest debate tactics and here they are again... you’ve been answered. I even answered your loaded question... earlier... and was misquoted in falsification...
BINGO!Maybe.....resurrection?
There is nothing in that hodgepodge that says what Christ's death did for those that do not get salvation.
But you are welcome to respond with another cluster of gifs if you think that helps.
BINGO!
Maybe EE will catch on and can provide an answer next time someone asks.
That's a good question, and whatever is the answer, will explain 1st Timothy 4:10 (KJV), and why He is the Savior of anybody other than His Church, the Elect, the Body of Christ; believers. At least in some sense, He is NOT the Savior of unbelievers. Whatever way that is, is precisely NOT what 1st Timothy 4:10 (KJV) means, in saying He is the Savior of all.
Our Lord plainly states, that His blood is poured out for “many,” not for “all” (Matt. 26:28). Many does not mean all. It is indisputable. Please reconcile this plain teaching with your odd claim that Our Lord died (shed His blood) for all, especially when Our Lord directly contradicts your assertion. What is your plain answer to His plain statement?
All who believe, what's so confusing about that? Not all believe.
:AMR: How am I a liar? What the hell is wrong with you?1 Timothy 4:10
Liar!
Coming from you ...... that doesn't mean anything.You lie.
Hi Derf.For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. [1Co 15:22 KJV]
Does "all" mean "all"? Does only one "all" mean "all", and the other "all" means "not all"? Maybe Paul misunderstood Matt 26:28. Or maybe it wasn't written yet, so he didn't have the full truth.
Fortunately Paul explains what "many" means, too:
But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. [Rom 5:15 KJV]
For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous. [Rom 5:19 KJV]
Answer: Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: [Rom 5:12 KJV]
If death passed to "all" because of Adam's offence, but Paul then says "many be dead" through Adam's offence, does not Paul mean "all" when he says "many". And if Paul says "all will be made alive", but he only means "many", he sure seems to confuse the two terms.
At this point... I place more stock in @God’s Truth ‘s words than what you say.
GT admits Jesus died for all... as scripture says... the obedience thing is her perspective and desire to serve God... but... at least she knows all means all...
And, Yeah... I am simple... Jesus died for all and draws all. Not all respond with love or desire for what Jesus has done.
He can even speak to men that never have a Bible or know His name... and draw them unto salvation... because of Jesus’s DBR... and 1st Corinthians 13 Love...
[MENTION=13955]glorydaz[/MENTION] and [MENTION=3698]Tambora[/MENTION] agree with you... per their failure to answer if Jesus died for all as 1 John 2:2 and 1 Timothy 4:10 say.
I’m pretty sure [MENTION=16629]patrick jane[/MENTION] agrees too...
Since they don’t have the Balls to nut up and shut up the “Jesus didn’t die for all crowd”...
Congratulations on your Pharisees following. :e4e:
:AMR: How am I a liar? What the hell is wrong with you?