What is a Biblical dispensation?

Nick M

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I don't want to go too far off the rails in other places. Here is one of several examples.

Ephesians 3:2 if indeed you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which was given to me for you

What does he mean? What was he given to give to us?
 

Lon

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I don't want to go too far off the rails in other places. Here is one of several examples.

Ephesians 3:2 if indeed you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which was given to me for you
Saw this untouched for a month so thought I'd give it a bump.

"Dispensation" isn't a word we use often, nor the synonyms: management, administration in theological discussion often. Dispensationalists generally mean: God has worked differently, with different people, at different times from my Dispensation class.
What does he mean? What was he given to give to us?
The dispensation of grace, to gentiles (and reflexively to Jews today) was entrusted to Paul. For Ephesians, it meant as gentiles, they learned and were given the gospel of salvation by grace in Jesus Christ. For 'us' today, both Jews and gentiles, it means we receive salvation by grace.
 

JudgeRightly

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I don't want to go too far off the rails in other places. Here is one of several examples.

Ephesians 3:2 if indeed you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which was given to me for you

What does he mean? What was he given to give to us?

The short answer?

"House rules."

Analogy:

If I go to your house, and we play pool together, and as the game is wrapping up I hit the 8-ball into a pocket without calling it, you might get mad at me, because in your house, when playing pool, one is supposed to call the pocket. I broke your house rules.

In the same way, The house of Israel was given a set of rules to follow. Two, actually. We know them as the Mosaic Law, where the nation must keep the law for salvation, and later, the New Covenant.

The "dispensation" (gk. oikonomia, which is the same word we derive the english word "economy" from, it is the "house rules" of how people do business) given to Paul was a different set of "house rules" (literal translation of oikonomia: "oikos" = house; "nomos" = rules or law). We know it as "the dispensation of the grace of God," or the "covenant" of grace, where the rule is that God will forgive and save from damnation those who humble themselves before Him, recognizing that they are not able to keep the law, and instead relying on God.

"Dispensation" isn't a word we use often, nor the synonyms: management, administration in theological discussion often. Dispensationalists generally mean: God has worked differently, with different people, at different times from my Dispensation class.

That's what we teach, yes, but that's not what the word means, nor what a dispensation is.

The dispensation of grace, to gentiles (and reflexively to Jews today) was entrusted to Paul. For Ephesians, it meant as gentiles, they learned and were given the gospel of salvation by grace in Jesus Christ. For 'us' today, both Jews and gentiles, it means we receive salvation by grace.

Generally correct, but doesn't answer Nick's question.
 

Tambora

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For 'us' today, both Jews and gentiles, it means we receive salvation by grace.
For us today????

Question for you, dear Lon:

Is it the contention of your understanding of MADism to claim that there will be a time in the future when the saving grace gospel Paul taught to all people for salvation will at some point in the future be unable to save anyone?
Will there be a time in the future when Paul's epistles should be cast aside because the saving grace gospel he taught in those epistle will be invalid for salvation?
 
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Is it the contention of your understanding of MADism to claim that there will be a time in the future when the saving grace gospel Paul taught to all people for salvation will at some point in the future be unable to save anyone?
Absolutely!! The dispensation of the grace of God is limited to TODAY (i.e., now).

God has changed His dealings with humanity on a number of occasions, like when He separated Israel from all other people.

God once required faith and works. Presently, it's faith alone.

During the "hour of His judgement" there will be an everlasting gospel that has no cross associated with it:
Rev 14:6-7 (AKJV/PCE)​
(14:6) And I saw another angel fly in the midst of heaven, having the everlasting gospel to preach unto them that dwell on the earth, and to every nation, and kindred, and tongue, and people, (14:7) Saying with a loud voice, Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters.

Will there be a time in the future when Paul's epistles should be cast aside because the saving grace gospel he taught in those epistle will be invalid for salvation?
We never "cast aside" any scripture... we simply understand it ALL in ITS PROPER CONTEXT.

And YES!!! Salvation by grace through faith is a LIMITED TIME OFFER.

P.S. The words "grace" and "faith" appear together in only 12 verses in scripture... ALL in PAUL'S EPISTLES.

5 times in Romans​
3 times in 1st Timothy​
2 times in Titus​
once in 2nd Corinthians​
once in Ephesians​
 

Derf

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Saw this untouched for a month so thought I'd give it a bump.

"Dispensation" isn't a word we use often, nor the synonyms: management, administration in theological discussion often. Dispensationalists generally mean: God has worked differently, with different people, at different times from my Dispensation class.

The dispensation of grace, to gentiles (and reflexively to Jews today) was entrusted to Paul. For Ephesians, it meant as gentiles, they learned and were given the gospel of salvation by grace in Jesus Christ. For 'us' today, both Jews and gentiles, it means we receive salvation by grace.
Those are synonyms usually in a systematic theology sense, as you said. Does that verse require such a sense? I suggest that it doesn't, which would mean Paul is merely talking about how grace is being dispensed through him to the Gentiles, using this definition from Websters 1828 dictionary:
1. Distribution; the act of dealing out to different persons or places; as the dispensation of water indifferently to all parts of the earth.

The Greek word, oikonomia, does seem to engender the management of something, but it's interesting that the gospels always translate the word as "stewardship", while in Paul's letters it's usually translated as "dispensation". I think that "stewardship" would work just as well, if someone didn't already have an idea of a different meaning in mind. Not sure where the KJV translators were coming from on it.
 

DAN P

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Those are synonyms usually in a systematic theology sense, as you said. Does that verse require such a sense? I suggest that it doesn't, which would mean Paul is merely talking about how grace is being dispensed through him to the Gentiles, using this definition from Websters 1828 dictionary:
1. Distribution; the act of dealing out to different persons or places; as the dispensation of water indifferently to all parts of the earth.

The Greek word, oikonomia, does seem to engender the management of something, but it's interesting that the gospels always translate the word as "stewardship", while in Paul's letters it's usually translated as "dispensation". I think that "stewardship" would work just as well, if someone didn't already have an idea of a different meaning in mind. Not sure where the KJV translators were coming from on it.
The Greek word oikonomia means oiko // means house and nomia means law

these are the house rules

# 1 osas

# 2 a new creation

# 3 we will govern Gods universe

# 4 we will govern angels

# 5 we are members of his body

Just to mention some of them

dan p
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Those are synonyms usually in a systematic theology sense, as you said. Does that verse require such a sense? I suggest that it doesn't, which would mean Paul is merely talking about how grace is being dispensed through him to the Gentiles, using this definition from Websters 1828 dictionary:
1. Distribution; the act of dealing out to different persons or places; as the dispensation of water indifferently to all parts of the earth.

The Greek word, oikonomia, does seem to engender the management of something, but it's interesting that the gospels always translate the word as "stewardship", while in Paul's letters it's usually translated as "dispensation". I think that "stewardship" would work just as well, if someone didn't already have an idea of a different meaning in mind. Not sure where the KJV translators were coming from on it.
Good catch.

Isaiah 22:19 and 21 also use the word in the Septuagint, the KJB renders them "thy government" and "thy station", so your idea of it meaning "stewardship", which is an office, I think is supported. So a Biblical Dispensation would be a Biblical office, or stewardship.
 

Lon

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Those are synonyms usually in a systematic theology sense, as you said. Does that verse require such a sense? I suggest that it doesn't, which would mean Paul is merely talking about how grace is being dispensed through him to the Gentiles, using this definition from Websters 1828 dictionary:
1. Distribution; the act of dealing out to different persons or places; as the dispensation of water indifferently to all parts of the earth.
"Require?" Point? That God distributes/dispenses/manages what He does differently? What is your objection?

Perhaps another way to explain Dispensation is to say God was working 'parts' of a plan through history toward the gospel of Grace.

In the same sense that any Dispensationalist (Mid, 2nd Acts, etc) means God is doing things differently.
What are the 7 Dispensations? May answer questions I'm not picking up on.


The Greek word, oikonomia, does seem to engender the management of something, but it's interesting that the gospels always translate the word as "stewardship", while in Paul's letters it's usually translated as "dispensation". I think that "stewardship" would work just as well, if someone didn't already have an idea of a different meaning in mind. Not sure where the KJV translators were coming from on it.
It depends on what translation you are using. Some say "dispensation" from whence we derive the word and idea.

You are correct "Dispensational" tends to be a theological term. It carries the meaning of "eras, workings, unfolding plans, stage in His work, and 'manage/stewardship' as all-inclusive as one contemplates "What God was doing, when."

Generally, when you are talking to any Dispensationalist, this is the scope of their discussion.
 

Lon

Well-known member
The short answer?

"House rules."

Analogy:

If I go to your house, and we play pool together, and as the game is wrapping up I hit the 8-ball into a pocket without calling it, you might get mad at me, because in your house, when playing pool, one is supposed to call the pocket. I broke your house rules.

In the same way, The house of Israel was given a set of rules to follow. Two, actually. We know them as the Mosaic Law, where the nation must keep the law for salvation, and later, the New Covenant.

The "dispensation" (gk. oikonomia, which is the same word we derive the english word "economy" from, it is the "house rules" of how people do business) given to Paul was a different set of "house rules" (literal translation of oikonomia: "oikos" = house; "nomos" = rules or law). We know it as "the dispensation of the grace of God," or the "covenant" of grace, where the rule is that God will forgive and save from damnation those who humble themselves before Him, recognizing that they are not able to keep the law, and instead relying on God.



That's what we teach, yes, but that's not what the word means, nor what a dispensation is.
What are the 7 dispensations? May answer your point as well.
Generally correct, but doesn't answer Nick's question.
Doesn't have to, directly, but it starts it (although he asked for a definition and I gave one, so...).
I saw a thread with one post and no discussion. With 11 posts, 'my' goal for entrance is met.

I always start in threads defining terms. It was/is my estimation that the thread didn't get going specifically because it has to explain what one is talking about.
 
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Lon

Well-known member
The Greek word oikonomia means oiko // means house and nomia means law
"House rules."
You both defined οἰκονομos, not oikonomia
oikonomia
From G3623; administration (of a household or estate); specifically a (religious) “economy”: - dispensation, stewardship.
Total KJV occurrences: 8


It 'breaks down' to those ideas, not necessarily forcing 'house-rules.' For instance "house-broke" doesn't mean breaking a house, it means a pet doesn't use it for dispensation of fluids and solids.

Ephesians 3:2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward.

Note with me that 'administration' works and 'house-rules' (not Oikonomia) doesn't fit well into it.

So I don't believe 'house-rules' the best answer to Nick's question. It doesn't fit.
 
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Lon

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For us today????

Question for you, dear Lon:

Is it the contention of your understanding of MADism to claim that there will be a time in the future when the saving grace gospel Paul taught to all people for salvation will at some point in the future be unable to save anyone?
After Judgement.


It would seem that the 7th Dispensation of Kingdom Reign would have to be set upon the 6th-Dispensation of Grace. I cannot fathom a millenial reign without Jews everywhere coming to Christ as Lord and Savior Acts 4:12/17:30
Will there be a time in the future when Paul's epistles should be cast aside because the saving grace gospel he taught in those epistle will be invalid for salvation?
I think I'm grasping your question: In all Dispensationalism, you could think 'time' is a factor for how God's Salvation is effectual in those different times.

Caveate: I'd been more Covenant and as regards to Calvinism (Presbyterian, some Baptists etc.), more Amyraldian (3 point Calvinism, tends to be a Catholic term though I wasn't while holding to it) most of my life even heavily steeped in 2nd Dispensational surroundings and theology teachings. Mid Acts is a lot closer on some ideas with Calvinism than 2nd Chapter of Acts Dispensationalists ( most Baptists, Four-Square, Assembly of God, etc.).

I'm fairly close to MidActs in agreement but if some from any Dispensationalist perspective want to weigh in on this, welcome!

I'm fairly sure the answer is "yes, Paul's writings will one day be unnecessary" but I believe I'm correct in saying that all Dispensationalist agree it will be after judgement. Until then, the 6th Dispensation will not end, even through a Millennial Reign (again, double-check me please).
 

Derf

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The Greek word oikonomia means oiko // means house and nomia means law

these are the house rules

# 1 osas
Do you think angels ever become saved to the point that they cannot fall? Why or why not? And do you think we will be like the angels in that sense?
# 2 a new creation

# 3 we will govern Gods universe
Do you mean that we will direct the paths of planets, stars, and galaxies? If not, what do you mean?
# 4 we will govern angels

# 5 we are members of his body

Just to mention some of them

dan p
Interesting thoughts, Dan.
 

Derf

Well-known member
"Require?" Point? That God distributes/dispenses/manages what He does differently? What is your objection?

Perhaps another way to explain Dispensation is to say God was working 'parts' of a plan through history toward the gospel of Grace.

In the same sense that any Dispensationalist (Mid, 2nd Acts, etc) means God is doing things differently.
What are the 7 Dispensations? May answer questions I'm not picking up on.



It depends on what translation you are using. Some say "dispensation" from whence we derive the word and idea.
I didn't see too many uses of "dispensation" in the gospels. I think the reason it gets used for Paul is that he joins it to the idea of "toward" his readers. Otherwise stewardship would work fine for his, as well.
You are correct "Dispensational" tends to be a theological term. It carries the meaning of "eras, workings, unfolding plans, stage in His work, and 'manage/stewardship' as all-inclusive as one contemplates "What God was doing, when."
I like to back off from the standard uses of theological terms when I can, and see if a different conclusion might be reached. Else confirmation bias rules the house, so to speak.
Generally, when you are talking to any Dispensationalist, this is the scope of their discussion.
I wasn't. Just trying to answer the question.
 
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Lon

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Do you think angels ever become saved to the point that they cannot fall? Why or why not? And do you think we will be like the angels in that sense?
1 John 3:2 "We will be like Him..." Revelation 21:4 "...no more..."
Do you mean that we will direct the paths of planets, stars, and galaxies? If not, what do you mean?
1 Corinthians 6:3
 

Derf

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1 John 3:2 "We will be like Him..."
But also like the angels, right? At least like them regarding marriage. What do you think? Will it be possible for angels to fall, or does something happen to them to prevent it?
Revelation 21:4 "...no more..."
Maybe my question is "Why?" And depending on previous questions...
1 Corinthians 6:3
I figured that's where he was pointing, but I'd never heard it expressed that way before.
 
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Derf

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1 John 3:2 "We will be like Him..."
The other thing is that we know this is limited to the things that don't make us God. Jesus will live forever, and so will we. Jesus is almighty, but we won't be.
 
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