Interplanner
Well-known member
Acts 1 clearly shuts down that topic; the expression is in the category of "it is none of your business" which should cause YOU personally to state why you make it your business. The rest of the book of Acts is perfectly clear that there is no theocracy coming, that it is all fulfilled in the resurrection of Christ (Acts 2, 3 and 13's sermons are in formidable harmony) and finally that what Israel keeps seeking at its temple is ALREADY here in Christ and his, ch 26. Someone is not bothering to read the material!
(Sorry I'm not seeing the quote link on time; this is about post #136).
It is perfectly clear that a future theocracy is not in Israel's future. There is nothing about it in the NT. It is not to be confused with what the church became which is the huge ingathering of the nations in Isaianic scale. That is what happened historically, but it was not a theocracy. Rom 11 is not about a theocracy. 2 Pet 3 does not mention one. Etc etc etc.
There is no truth to saying it is all through there but I twist it. Show anything you want about there being a 2P2P return to theocracy. There is no theologicaly "need" for it to happen, that's why. That says more than stringing proof-text phrasing together.
(Sorry I'm not seeing the quote link on time; this is about post #136).
It is perfectly clear that a future theocracy is not in Israel's future. There is nothing about it in the NT. It is not to be confused with what the church became which is the huge ingathering of the nations in Isaianic scale. That is what happened historically, but it was not a theocracy. Rom 11 is not about a theocracy. 2 Pet 3 does not mention one. Etc etc etc.
There is no truth to saying it is all through there but I twist it. Show anything you want about there being a 2P2P return to theocracy. There is no theologicaly "need" for it to happen, that's why. That says more than stringing proof-text phrasing together.