ECT True or False question (Billy Graham)

True or False question (Billy Graham)


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  • Poll closed .

glorydaz

Well-known member
Revelation 3:3 Remember, therefore, what you have received and heard; obey it, and repent. But if you do not wake up, I will come like a thief, and you will not know at what time I will come to you.

Uh hem. :rolleyes:

Nothing there about repent of sins as you claimed.

"So Satan laughs at Jesus who says to repent of sins?"


:popcorn:
 

drbrumley

Well-known member
Which doctrine or instruction in righteousness does sacrificing a goat fall under?
Can you sacrifice a goat without violating the commandment to bring your animals to the Temple on mount Zion to sacrifice it?

So obviously you KNOW we dont do that today, so you KNOW the differences between economies.

Maybe you forgot to tell Paul that the scriptures were not to be read by us?

2 Timothy 3:16
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:​


Um, Paul is right. We read it, and understand the differences.
 

drbrumley

Well-known member
Revelation 3:3 Remember, therefore, what you have received and heard; obey it, and repent. But if you do not wake up, I will come like a thief, and you will not know at what time I will come to you.

Post mill tripe. Your as bad as Meshak, ripping verses out of context in whole.
 

God's Truth

New member
Uh hem. :rolleyes:

Nothing there about repent of sins as you claimed.

"So Satan laughs at Jesus who says to repent of sins?"


:popcorn:

It is about repent of sins:


Revelation 9:20 The rest of mankind who were not killed by these plagues still did not repent of the work of their hands; they did not stop worshiping demons, and idols of gold, silver, bronze, stone and wood--idols that cannot see or hear or walk.
21 Nor did they repent of their murders, their magic arts, their sexual immorality or their thefts.

lol
 

drbrumley

Well-known member
It is about repent of sins:


Revelation 9:20 The rest of mankind who were not killed by these plagues still did not repent of the work of their hands; they did not stop worshiping demons, and idols of gold, silver, bronze, stone and wood--idols that cannot see or hear or walk.
21 Nor did they repent of their murders, their magic arts, their sexual immorality or their thefts.

lol

:yawn: The Body of Christ which is the church will NOT be here....
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
It is about repent of sins:


Revelation 9:20 The rest of mankind who were not killed by these plagues still did not repent of the work of their hands; they did not stop worshiping demons, and idols of gold, silver, bronze, stone and wood--idols that cannot see or hear or walk.
21 Nor did they repent of their murders, their magic arts, their sexual immorality or their thefts.

lol

That wasn't Jesus as you claimed.
You said Jesus said repent of sin....not some messengers in Revelation.

Revelation is just a vision, remember? Do you change your tune to suit your claims?
 

Danoh

New member
You don't divide them rightly when you divide them.

What Does 2 Timothy 2:15 Mean by 'Rightly Dividing the Word of Truth'?
Despite what many teach today, the words in the Greek do not mean "to divide the Bible into sections".

many dispensationalists teach a division between what they see as the Jewish portions and the Church portions of the Word of God. And on that basis, classic dispensationalism postulates separate programs for Israel and the Gentile church, extending out into eternity - one group of people in the New Heaven, the other group of people on the New Earth. There is some degree of disagreement among dispensationalists about which group will be where for eternity. And there is also significant disagreement among them about where to "cut and divide" the Bible between Jewish parts and Church parts, and there is significant disagreement among them about the number of dispensations, where they begin and end, whether or not they overlap, and so on.

the covenant theology view in general says that "rightly dividing" in 2nd Timothy 2:15 simply means "accurately teaching" God's Word. As a result, in contrast to the dispensationalist view, what I'm calling the covenant theology view teaches that there is one program of God, encompassing both Jew and Gentile, beginning before the foundation of the world and extending out into eternity - and that we will all be together in the New Heavens and New Earth. And it says that God's plan is manifested in two covenants, which Scripture calls the Old and the New, within the over-arching framework of one unified plan of redemption.

In New Testament times, orthotomeo was primarily a civil engineering term. It was used, for example, as a road building term. The idea of the word was to cut straight, or to guide on a straight path. The idea is to cut a roadway in a straight manner, so that people who will travel over that road can arrive at their destination directly, without deviation. Orthotomeo was also used as a mining term. It meant to drill a straight mine shaft so that the miners can get quickly and safely to the "mother lode."

There is another word in Greek, katatomeo, which means "to cut into sections." But that is not the word that the Apostle Paul, under divine inspiration, uses here in 2nd Timothy 2:15. Paul is not talking about "rightly dividing" in terms of dissecting the Word of God, or cutting it into sections based on Jew and Gentile, or Israel and Church, or any other criterion. It's interesting that the Apostle Paul does use that other word - katatomeo, cutting up - in Philippians 3:2, where he says, literally, "beware of those who would divide you up" - in other words, beware of those who would try to make a difference among believers between Jews and Gentiles.

So what is the proper meaning of orthotomeo - "rightly dividing" the Word of truth? What is intended is not the dividing of Scripture, not cutting it up, but teaching Scripture accurately, as a single, unified whole, without being turned aside by false teaching or man-made agendas.

Take this how you might, or might not.

Paul himself follows verse 15 in 2 Timothy 2 with an example of two individuals who failed to note what goes where in time, in Scripture, in their assertion or "saying that the resurrection is past already" verse 18.

Obviously, Paul did not have Christ's Own "past already" Resurrection in mind, but rather that yet future Romans 8; 1 Thessalonians 4, and so on, resurrection of Believers.

And obviously, Paul did not have our "past already" Romans 6 resurrection in mind.

Each of which require rightly laying out one's word on them to others such that one's word on any of those is not that of Hymanaeus and Philitus "who concerning the truth have erred" but is instead based on where each of those different resurrection go within Scripture's Time Past; But Now; Ages to Come Time Line.

Greek the "rightly dividing" phrase all you want - all you are proving is your inability to arrive at the actually intended sense or meaning of the phrase in accordance with Basic Reading 101 Rules of Grammar - through how any word and or phrase is used, where it is found being used, by whom, as to what, in light of who, about what, compared to what, when, where, why, and how, and so on.

In this, dictionaries are ever the amatuer reader's fool's gold.

We will have to differ... I find that your word on this is not unlike that of those two individuals - I find that "concerning the truth" on this, you "have erred."

Rom. 5: 6-8 towards you.
 

God's Truth

New member
That wasn't Jesus as you claimed.
You said Jesus said repent of sin....not some messengers in Revelation.

Revelation is just a vision, remember? Do you change your tune to suit your claims?

That is Jesus speaking.

Now I have shown you that the risen Lord says to repent of your sins.
 
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