glorydaz
Well-known member
Not the same at all. Paul is talking about them in the past tense.....since there is neither Jew nor Gentile under grace.You mean like Paul does?
1 Corinthians 12:2 (KJV)
Ye know that ye were Gentiles, carried away unto these dumb idols, even as ye were led.
So why can't Peter mean the same thing as Paul? Like so:
Ephesians 2:11 (KJV)
Wherefore remember, that ye [being] in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
Peter isn't recognizing that fact and continues to call them gentiles.