nikolai_42
Well-known member
At [MENTION=5671]nikolai_42[/MENTION]
[MENTION=1746]freelight[/MENTION] has provided you with pry bars to my stance. You are welcome to research his content. It is accurate.
If you catch it... you will have the needed ammunition you need to "open" Canon.
A key to crippling my stance would be to find an extra canonical reference in canon that points to what has been labeled...
"Apocrypha" or false books (As referred to by the Protestant types)
I would expect you to find one of these references in canon and site the extra canonical source. Happy hunting, and prepare to open... Pandora's box. : )
I'm afraid I don't have the leisure (at the moment) to go through Freelight's argument. The issue of opening the canon is secondary to what I am trying to say. That is, your attempting to limit exegesis to linguistic analysis and simple, plain reading of the text is overly simplistic and results in you being able to draw the line in a somewhat arbitrary manner. That is, it enables one to say "What that teacher is saying is unscriptural and I reject it simply on the basis that he is adding to scripture" when all he may be doing is elucidating on the broader scriptural argument.
Take it this way...
I John 2:27 says "Let NO man teach you.". Ephesians 4:11 says "And He gave some...teachers.". I believe the word used in both cases (for teach/teacher) comes directly from the root we use in English for didactic. So the immediate linguistic analysis results in a direct contradiction. The intent of scripture requires either great analytical skills or great spiritual insight (or both). If it is simply great analytical skills, then what Paul says about the spiritual man judging all things and know man knowing the things of God save the Spirit of God is broken down to something along the lines of "A man well-versed in linguistics and analytical grammar is given to teach the things of God." That may be true in some or many cases, but it is NOT what I Corinthians 2:11-16 is asserting. It is clearly saying that the teacher approved by God is spiritual. He may well be very analytical, but the foundation of his ability to teach is of the Spirit of God (not of intellectual capacity). Indeed, much can be gleaned from the scriptures by simple inductive reasoning (and agreeing with what is said). But there remain things "hard to be understood" that are proof of the necessity that all the Truth be taught by someone who is Spiritual (I use capital "S" to indicate one who is directed by the Holy Spirit). If James 3:1 is really just saying that the teacher of scripture will be judged based primarily on his intellectual ability, then the core of the Truth is being missed. The Spirit of God is the teacher who reveals Christ. But that doesn't automatically mean everyone who calls themselves a teacher because of ability is a teacher. There are qualifications.
Which brings me to another point I haven't really raised yet. The scriptures seem to teach that Truth (not just propositional, logical assertions) implies something beyond mathematical provability.
If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.
John 7:17
Now...either that means that we won't know if Jesus is telling the truth until we test Him and do what He says, or it is more the fact that Truth involves a moral and spiritual component that must undergird knowledge. The faith and obedience and spiritual/moral quality of a man is a prime indicator of what that man is teaching. A good tree cannot bring forth bad fruit - and neither can a bad tree bring forth good fruit. And when you look at the qualifications for bishops (indeed, even simply those called "servants of the Lord"), they are to be apt to teach. In other words, it must be that what they teach is a part of their being - not just an academic reality. This is a proof of their teaching - and I think I am safe in just asserting that those that have moral and spiritual "high ground" are those whose words carry more weight because of their righteousness (Matthew 7:28-29 furnish the prime example for this).
I would even add that those who teach as ones being instructed into the Kingdom are those who are led by the Spirit of God (Romans 8:14). As such, their authority is not merely a reasoned one (though their words will not contradict scripture but uphold more than just the letter of it) but one that comes from God.
*The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.
John 3:8
When the Spirit of God leads a man, not only is his logic impeccable, but there is inevitably something beyond what is rationally deduced that accompanies his message.
While I believe this is all important, it has to be a secondary point because if an angel from heaven can preach a different gospel while appearing as God's messenger, then one needs to be careful that the letter not be made unimportant. In that case it is enough to say that such a being is contradicting scripture (regardless of how spiritual they may appear) and to reject their teaching. But I also recognize that such a deception is first of all spiritual. So there again, the qualification for knowing the Truth necessarily involves something beyond man's natural capabilities (lest they be deceived by someone smarter).
Thirdly, I see this as coming down to wanting an objective measure of Truth which is accepted and recognized by all. The basis upon which someone accepts something as true is not always clear. The objective basis upon which someone should accept something as true is not always straightforward. If two people are "of the same spirit", they will agree readily and communication will be an easy matter since they are operating on the same foundation. If two do NOT "agree in spirit", conflict and clashing will follow. So when John says "They went out from us...that they might be made manifest that they were not of us." (I John 2:19), you find a situation in which (ultimately) there is no common accepted basis for determining truth. So to find a single, universal (accepted) basis for determining truth, all would have to agree (and all do not). But on the other end of the spectrum, scripture is not of private interpretation. And while the scriptures are accepted as truth across confessing Christendom, differences (sometimes significant differences) occur because the written word is not a sufficient basis for determination of Truth. One can establish rules and decide that - within the bounds of those rules - it is determinant what is actually true. But one cannot properly prove that which exceeds the bounds of the domain of interest. What that means in terms of theology (as best I can tell) is that if a system (the bible, in this case) is analytical (can be broken down in logical terms - however one decides to do that), you will inevitably end up with things that not only can't be proven, but things that can't even be assessed properly within the bounds of that system (i.e. the logic used to assess the scriptures). Which means (as far as I can tell) there are two options :
1. Accept everything in scripture at face value without analyzing in any sense of the word (except reading and understanding what the plain English says)
OR
2. Accept that there have to be teachers who will have to teach by the leading of the Holy Spirit to understand critical things in scripture that won't otherwise be understood (at least not properly).
Honestly, I have no problem with anyone who wants to do #1, but that precludes nearly all arguments (other than those like "Because scripture says so"). And as I tried to point out above, when you run into situations like the difficulties posed by I John 2:27 and Ephesians 4:11 in the light of I Corinthians 2:11-16, you either have to allow the difficulty to remain and live realizing that tension may not be solved anytime soon (trusting God will show you) or recognizing that others have been given insight that you (and I) may not have. And again...I personally have NO problem with #1 (other than it makes being a Berean a risky proposition). It also casts doubt on the necessity for the role of teacher - I do recognize that the moral argument made above means a teacher may be more of a spiritual role - but then again, that also means teaching transcends mere academic rigor. However, if that's the case, then this whole thread (nay...board!) needs to dissolve into nothing (and it's entirely possible that might be of God....)
I hope that's at least semi-coherent. This is a huge topic and there are so many things I want to raise but haven't ordered them as well as I would like.