Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
You want to take the following verse literally even though it cannot be taken literally since the Lord Jesus was not literally the second man:
"The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit. Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual. The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven" (1 Cor.15:45-47).
The subject of Paul's discourse concerns the two different kind of bodies which Christians have now and will have when they are raised up from the dead:
"So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption: It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power: It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body" (1 Cor.15:42-45).
So when Paul refers to Adam as being the first man he is simply comparing the first body which Christians will wear to the second body which will be a spiritual body like the Lord Jesus' body now. So unless you want to argue that that the Lord Jesus was literally the second man then you cannot take literally that Adam was the first man.
Now please address what I said about the following verse:
In the first part of the verse we can see that the subject is "man" and the subject remains the same throughout the verse. In fact, it would make no sense to say that no "man" has ascended up to heaven but the Son of God who came down from heaven.
Do you just think that the Lord Jesus made a mistake when He said that the Son of Man came down from heaven?
"The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit. Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual. The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven" (1 Cor.15:45-47).
The subject of Paul's discourse concerns the two different kind of bodies which Christians have now and will have when they are raised up from the dead:
"So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption: It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power: It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body" (1 Cor.15:42-45).
So when Paul refers to Adam as being the first man he is simply comparing the first body which Christians will wear to the second body which will be a spiritual body like the Lord Jesus' body now. So unless you want to argue that that the Lord Jesus was literally the second man then you cannot take literally that Adam was the first man.
Now please address what I said about the following verse:
"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of Man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).
In the first part of the verse we can see that the subject is "man" and the subject remains the same throughout the verse. In fact, it would make no sense to say that no "man" has ascended up to heaven but the Son of God who came down from heaven.
Do you just think that the Lord Jesus made a mistake when He said that the Son of Man came down from heaven?