ECT The Same Yesterday, and Today, and For Ever

meshak

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FATHER, SON and HOLY SPIRIT.... just like the Bible says.

ONE GOD in THREE PERSONS.... just like the Bible says.

P.S. Why did you delete "blessings" and replace it with this?



Nope, the Bible does not say God the Father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit.

It is your doctrine, not scriptural.

God is only one. You made three Gods.
 

Lon

Well-known member
On this, there is a careful wade (for me) between creeds. Some aren't interested in that, and so will line-up how they view scripture. That makes sense, but for me, I'm thinking God has given me guidelines (the creeds). We certainly may and can reject any unbiblical creed but a good many men, most godly I'd reckon, gave what they felt was Christ-honoring and Scripture-honoring. For me again, I don't over emphasize them but I do want to do justice to their humongous effort and honor that labor, even if I don't wind up agreeing with them. "Respect" would be the idea, if I have a contention. I 'want' to be orthodox if and wherever I can.

So, let me give my agreements, disagreements, and thoughts:
Thanks Lon!

In the article from CARM we read the following:

"Furthermore, the doctrine of the incarnation denies any change in the divine word at all. It simply states that the Word became flesh (not meaning it changed its nature). The Word resides in the person of Christ along with the human nature, so that Jesus has two distinct natures.

Therefore, we can conclude that the Godhead participates in humanity through the incarnation of Christ, but the Godhead is not changed in anyway."

Here we read that when the Lord Jesus became flesh that didn't change His nature.

But if the Lord Jesus was just God before He was born of Mary and then became Man then it is obvious that His nature did change.
I was of a similar mind, at one time. It gets a bit redundant in thought for me, but I think I can agree with Matt Slick and the creeds on this. Here is how: Everything we are, is from God. Colossians 1:17 That means, I think, that there is nothing we are, that God doesn't already know about, put there, and comes from His being already. I 'think' there is about universal agreement on this so far? Colossians 1:16-20 refresher if need be. Next, then, I 'can' agree with Matt Slick and the creeds that it wouldn't be a 'change' but, as I said previously, a reduction. I'd think Philippians 2:5-11 helps explain this difference to us. I think of it this way: The Lord Jesus Christ was subject to the Father as such, 'humbling' Himself and becoming a servant was nothing new. Any change, and you or I might assert a difference BUT can anything be 'new' to God if everything, everything, everything, everything comes from Him (nothing exists that exists), and is sustained by Him?

For me, it helped me embrace the creeds and they, in turn helped me in scripture reading.

I say that the Lord Jesus was both Man and God before He was born of Mary and therefore, as it says on CARM, His nature did not change.
For me, anybody disagreeing OR agreeing, depends on what they are conceiving at the moment and that depending on that, they might both be right, but perhaps not seeing the bigger picture. I'm not sure you'd want to say Jesus was a 'man' with those limitations, but certainly all that man is, comes from the being of God, thus is part of Him, as you say. There are scriptures that explain the separation between God and man however: Numbers 23:19 1 Samuel 15:29. The separation might be understood, scripturally, as the difference between a fallen man, especially when most of these scripture comparisons bring up those fallen traits.

The LORD says that He makes human souls (Isa.47:16) so are we to believe that the Lord Jesus, who makes everything, made His own human soul?
If you'll entertain this, your question, to me, seems caught in 'creation.' Psalm 33:9 Hebrews 11:3 Whatever is made is an extension of who He already is. The two-natures, to me, is best understood in who He is before incarnation: God AND subject to the Father. We tend to think of dichotomies when conceiving of scriptures and tend to separate it all into compartments. For me, 'two natures' is one of those because the Lord Jesus Christ is both God AND subject to the Father before incarnation, and doesn't seem to be different than that during and after incarnation either. The only thing that is harder to explain, for me, is His temptations. My thinking is, that while in the flesh with those restrictions, that the reduction created those needs in the flesh that all men have, thus is able to empathize. Hebrews 4:15

Thanks for asking me to work through and explain my scriptural understanding here as well. I need to be able to cogently and scripturally articulate my biblical understanding and have it challenged where needed. 1 Peter 3:2,4,15
 

JudgeRightly

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Nope, the Bible does not say God the Father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit.

Yes it does.

It is your doctrine,

Nope.

not scriptural.

Yes, it is.

God is only one.

Something no trinitarian disagrees with.

You made three Gods.

Nope.


THREE QUESTIONS TO DETERMINE IF THE TRINITY IS BIBLICALLY TRUE OR FALSE. If any one of these questions can be answered 'no,' then the Trinity can be rejected as an unbiblical belief. But if all three can be answered 'yes,' then the concept of the Trinity can be accepted as true.

1. Does the Bible mention three distinct persons?

2. Does the Bible refer to each of these persons as God?

3. Does the Bible teach there is only one God?


The answers:

1. Are three distinct persons mentioned? YES.
A. The Father (1 John 3:1)
B. The Son (1 John 1:3)
C. The Holy Spirit (John 14:6; 14:26; 15:26; 16:13-14; Romans 15:30; Ephesians 4:30)


2. Are each of these persons referred to as God? YES.
A. God the Father (1Thessalonians 1:1)
B. God the Son (John 1:1; 20:28; Hebrews 1:8-9)
C. God the Holy Spirit (Acts 5:3-4)


3. Is there only one God? YES.
(see Deuteronomy 4:35-39; Psalm 86:10; Isaiah 45:5; 45:22)



If you can refute everything in the box above, then you can say that the trinity is not Biblical.

If not, then it is, and it should be considered as truth.
 

God's Truth

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According to your belief, Jesus is God and the Bible says there is only God.

If you believe Jesus is God, what GT is claiming make perfect sense.

But I don't believe Jesus is God.

Meshak, I am so glad for your input sometimes, it can be such great input. I just wish that you would be able to change your mind about some off beliefs that you have.
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
You are denying what the Lord Jesus said because He said in no uncertain terms that it was as the "Son of Man" when He came down from heaven:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of Man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

If you are right then He would have said that He came down from heaven as the Son of God and He is now in heaven as the Son of Man. And in the following verse He says that before He was born of Mary that He was in heaven as the Son of Man.

"What and if ye shall see the Son of Man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).​

If your idea is correct He would have said the following:

"What and if ye shall see the Son of God ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).​

If you really want to grow in knowledge of the Lord Jesus then you must learn to believe the Scriptures as they are written.

I'm sorry, Jerry, but for you to assume he "would have said" such and such is a bit presumptuous, considering so many other things that Jesus said. As I remember it, He confused others with His choice of word, even His own disciples.

And, I have no problem believing the Scripture, it's your interpretation of them that I'm finding fault with.
 

God's Truth

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Do you deny that the Lord Jesus is the "Father" in this verse?:



Here the LORD is called the Father and all people are created by Him. Since the Lord Jesus created all things then it is certain that He is the Father in that sense. And the following verse confirms the fact:

"For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace" (Isa.9:6).​



So the Lord Jesus was not telling the truth when He said that He was before all things?

"For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: And he is before all things, and by him all things consist. And he is the head of the body, the church"
(Col.1:16-18).​

Are confusing me with someone else?

You are either confusing me with someone else, or you are deliberately being contentious and deceitful; neither qualities of a Christians indwelt with the Spirit.
 

God's Truth

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Why do you fight against GT's claim?

she says Jesus is God and there is only one God.

Then Jesus is the Father, according to your "Jesus is God" doctrine.

They don't see it but you do.

The trinitarians are fighting what I say so hard, they don't want to admit their beliefs are wrong; and, Jerry wants to pretend I am not saying what I am because he now has to face the fact that he is not trinitarian.
 

Bright Raven

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They don't see it but you do.

The trinitarians are fighting what I say so hard, they don't want to admit their beliefs are wrong; and, Jerry wants to pretend I am not saying what I am because he now has to face the fact that he is not trinitarian.

It is simple to see the difference between the Father, Son and the Spirit but you don'r see it.
 

glorydaz

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The two-natures, to me, is best understood in who He is before incarnation: God AND subject to the Father. We tend to think of dichotomies when conceiving of scriptures and tend to separate it all into compartments. For me, 'two natures' is one of those because the Lord Jesus Christ is both God AND subject to the Father before incarnation, and doesn't seem to be different than that during and after incarnation either.

The Son of God is the exact same essence as God. His nature is fully divine. Where do you see subjection prior to the incarnation?

The Jews understood what that means.

John 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.
 

Lon

Well-known member
Where do you see subjection prior to the incarnation?

:up: Philippians 2:6

Again, as I think on these, it seems this kind of love is complete with a willingness toward subordination. I'm very correctable and challengeable regarding these matters and thank you for your scriptures and post (sorry, still congenial rather than desiring to posture where I may be corrected and am COMPLETELY willing to follow scriptures concerning His nature). A few years ago, I was kenotic as well. It took a godly challenge to move me from heresy I didn't even know I possessed :noway: Thank you. -Lon
 

Lon

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Thank you for these links

From the first:
Christ took human nature, but he did not take a man. He took the form of a servant (Philippians 2:7), but not a servant. He did not even take an existing human genotype or embryo. He created the genotype in union with himself, and it’s ‘personality’ developed only in union with the Son of God . . . [H]e is a divine person who, without ‘adopting’ an existing human person took our human nature and entered upon the whole range of human experiences. (201)
Addresses my need for clarity as well as Jerry's and Glory's posts.

I appreciate this from the second link as well:
There is a kind of asymmetry in Christology.
For me, such is always that careful walk between creeds as I mentioned earlier. I 'think' my observations so far in thread are true (wholly open to correction and/or concerns for being clear) and it is this difficulty in symmetry that I'm always trying to be careful of when describing Him.

This part of the conversation had been done in the linked thread, if anybody want's to go back for a recap.

In Him -Lon
 

Right Divider

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I give you scriptures all the time.

You don't know these scriptures about there is only one God and he is the Father, and, the Word was God and became flesh?
John 17:5 (KJV)
(17:5) And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

How could Jesus say that He had glory WITH His Father BEFORE the WORLD WAS if He was "the Father with a body"?

Note that BEFORE THE WORLD WAS is LONG BEFORE Jesus had a body.
 

God's Truth

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John 17:5 (KJV)
(17:5) And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
I have explained that in detail. Why don't you study harder?

How could Jesus say that He had glory WITH His Father BEFORE the WORLD WAS if He was "the Father with a body"?

Note that BEFORE THE WORLD WAS is LONG BEFORE Jesus had a body.

Jesus had his resurrected Spiritual Body First then came to earth as a man, then ascended to the Father with the same Spiritual Body he had before the world began.
 
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