Jesus did not change the law.
There has, however, been a change of the law with the change of the priesthood.
The question is what this means.
A change within the priesthood or a change to a different priesthood?
Is it an order of the priesthood, the Levitical Priesthood?
What do you know about the Levitical Priesthood if anything?
There has been an annulling of the former commandment too,
but I do not yet know what this means.
It is not that I am blind.
Yeshua, Jesus, holds His priesthood permanently. He is of the tribe of Judah, not Levi.
He is a priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek.
The priesthood of Jesus. He is our High Priest.
You say that I am ignorant and that my logic proves it. You say that ignorance on my part is the facts. It is not a small thing to call someone ignorant or to tell someone that they are ignorant. You must have a reason. I mean, I think you do. I do not see myself as ignorant, even though there are a lot of things that I do not know. For example, I am not all-knowing as God is.
I said
Look at what you have been spamming. You state a fact that Jesus did not change the law. Then you state a fact that the law was changed. Them are an oxymoron.
Then you come up with "What does this mean" Then you come up with all these different maybe's. Now these poke holes in your first fact statement. "Jesus did not change the law" Then you say "you do not know what this means". Now after all that fact and fiction, you say your not blind. Which you are.
That is not logic that is total confusion to the readers.