Chandler
New member
Interesting observations. I take the view that whatever the time and circumstances of the writing, "all scripture is given by inspiration of God" (2 Timothy 3:16).I would just say--seriously--that not everybody in the gospels had the same literal interpretation. Matthew's Peter was no exception.
Son of God, God, Messiah, Savior, divine sacrifice--all of these designations ultimately depended on the specific gospel writer's theology, location and the particular events their communities lived through. For example, Mark's Jesus cries out "My God, why have you forsaken me?" on the cross. In John, Jesus is made to show that everything in the scriptures has been fulfilled and the crucifixion is just one aspect of that ("It is finished!").
Mark's community was written shortly after or during the Roman-Jewish wars. Many Jews were killed and died in agony. Mark's crucifixion narrative shows that.
John's gospel was written much later--probably in the 90s. By then the christology of Jesus was solidifying and John's gospel of Jesus speaking in long, theological discourses confirms that.
The later canonical designations (Son of God, Messiah, etc.) were all theological affirmations.
I believe that Matthew originally wrote his gospel in Hebrew, intending this to be a conclusion to the Old Testament Hebrew writings. He also included many quotations showing fulfillment of prophesy in Jesus' lifetime. And of course, the gospels contain many prophetic utterances of Jesus. Hence, both the gospel writers and their readers must have acknowledged the gospel writings as scripture inspired by God and free from human error.