THE LORDS DAY CONTROVERSY?

[3rdAngel]

Hi All,

This thread is for scripture only. Is the "LORD'S DAY" that many proclaim SUNDAY according to the scriptures in the bible?

Let's start by looking at your scriptures that many use to claim SUNDAY is the "LORD'S DAY"

REVELATIONS 1:9-11 [9] I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ. [10], I was in the Spirit on the LORD'S DAY, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet, [11], Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What you see, write in a book, and send it to the seven churches which are in Asia; to Ephesus, and to Smyrna, and to Pergamos, and to Thyatira, and to Sardis, and to Philadelphia, and to Laodicea.

No doubt about it Revelations 1:10 clearly says that John was in the SPIRIT on the "LORD'S DAY"!

NOW the only problem you have is the need to show scripture that says SUNDAY IS THE LORD'S DAY.

Can you please provide scripture that says SUNDAY or the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK is the "LORD'S DAY"?

If we cannot find any scriptures to say that SUNDAY is the "LORD'S DAY" then we have a problem.

.............

Now let's look at the scriptures that give the only answer answer to our question that I can find in the bible...

Q. WHAT DAY IS THE "LORD'S DAY" ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURE?
A. MATTHEW 12:8 [8], For THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY.

Which day is the Lord's Day? THE SABBATH DAY (MATTHEW 12:8; MARK 2:27-28)

God's WORD says that the SABBATH DAY IS THE LORD'S DAY!

There is NO scripture that says Sunday or the FIRST DAY of the week is the Lords Day. God's Word says the Lord's day is the Sabbath day. This is the day God rested on, he set apart and made a Holy day at the completion of the creation week and made a memorial for all mankind (Genesis 2:1-3; Exodus 20:8-11). Jesus is the God of creation and he is the Lord of the Sabbath day (Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:27-28)

.............

Now friend's the SABBATH is the 4th Commandment of God's 10 Commandments and there is not one scripture in ALL of God's WORD that says that God's 4th Commandment has been ABOLISHED and we are now commanded to keep SUNDAY as a HOLY DAY. The same as there is not one scripture in ALL of God's WORD that says that SUNDAY is the LORD'S DAY.

John in the book of REVELATIONS 1:10 was in the SPIRIT on the SABBATH DAY not SUNDAY!

.............

HOW WAS THE LORD'S DAY CHANGED TO SUNDAY?

SUNDAY Worship is a teaching and tradition of men handed down by the Roman Catholic Church that has lead many to break and ignore God's 4th Commandment (Exodus 20:8-11).

Interested to know your thoughts. Remember friendly disucussion please supported by the scriptures.

May God bless you as you seek him through his Word.

 

[Right Divider]

No doubt about it Revelations 1:10 clearly says that John was in the SPIRIT on the "LORD'S DAY"!

The "Lord's day" in Revelation 1:10 is NOT a reference to a day of the week.

It is referring to the day of the Lord when He executes judgment on the world.

 

[3rdAngel]

The "Lord's day" in Revelation 1:10 is NOT a reference to a day of the week.

It is referring to the day of the Lord when He executes judgment on the world.

Actually no it isn't. REVELATION 1:10 is not referring to the second coming of "day of the Lord" it is referring to "the Lord's day" The Greek word used here is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day and the context of REVELATION 1 is not to the second coming but to "the day that John was in the "Spirit of". John is in the presence of JESUS in the Heavenly Sanctuary not the second coming.

The Lords day in the GREEK "Lord's Day" (κυριακή ημέρα; means day belonging to the Lord). That is this is the day John was in the Spirit receiving his vision was the time of the vision, the Lord's Day. The phrase in this latter passage is totally different. The phrase here is; en te kuriake hemera. The adjective is applied by Paul to the Lord’s Supper: from the Supper it came to be applied to the day.

On the Lord's day - The word rendered here as "Lord's" (κυριακῇ kuriakē), occurs only in this place and in 1 Corinthians 11:20, where it is applied to the Lord's supper. It properly means "belonging to the Lord"; and, so far as this word is concerned, "a day; belonging to the Lord," in any sense, or for any reason; either because he claimed it as his own, he was the "Creator" of the Sabbath. It is that day he set aside and rested on in the creation week, made known to his disciples that he made this day and he was the creator of it Lord and set it aside and made Holy (Genesis 2:1-3; Exodus 20:8-11; Mark 2:27-28; Matthew 12:8).

Jesus being the creator of all things and Lord's of the Sabbath would not be common knowledge to the Jews as the majority of them did not believe Jesus was the Messiah. Jesus as creator and Lord of the Sabbath was a revelation from God to his people. Hence Lord's day the day of the Sabbath that all God's people knew about is applied to Jesus as the creator of it.

It is clear that in reference to Revelation 1:10 that this refers to some day which was distinguished from all other days of the week, and which would be sufficiently designated by the use of this term "κυριακή ημέρα; day belonging to the Lord" κυριακή ημέρα that it was a day which was for some reason regarded as especially a day of the Lord, or especially devoted to him. κυριακή ημέρα it would further appear that this was a day particularly devoted to the Lord Jesus; for: that is the natural meaning of the word "Lord" as used in the New Testament and in, MATTHEW 12:8 κύριος γαρ εστι του σαββάτου ο υιός του ανθρώπου with the Word Lord κύριος being used here as supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller ; God, Lord. The Sabbath is the day that distinguishes Jesus as LORD, God creator of all things. This is the day (Sabbath) that John received his Vision.

.................

"The Lord's Day" in the Greek is a reference to a Day belonging to the Lord that John was in the Spirit on, which is the context and meaning of the Greek words used κυριακή ημέρα [10] εγενόμην εν πνεύματι εν τη κυριακή ημέρα και ήκουσα φωνήν οπίσω μου μεγαλήν ως σάλπιγγος.

Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries w/TVM, Strong - G2960 The Lord's day' κυριακός; kuriakos From G2962; belonging to the Lord (Jehovah or Jesus): - Lord's.

"The Day of the Lord" is a biblical term and theme used in both the Hebrew Bible (יֹום יְהוָה) and the New Testament. The Greek word for "the day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) uses a different Greek word to the Lords day as shown, as in "The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come" (Joel2:31, cited in Acts2:20).

..................


MATTHEW 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.

WHICH DAY IS THE LORDS DAY OR THE DAY?

MATTHEW 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.

MARK 2:27-28 [27], And he said to them, The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath:[28], Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.

The term "Lord's day" used in Revelation 1:10 is not linked to μία των which is used in the NEW TESTAMENT Greek which means FIRST DAY.

In Revelations 1:10 "Lords Day κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ does not link to any scripture reference in the NEW TESTAMENT to μιά των σαββάτων (the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK).

κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ used in Revelations 1:10 is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day. It does not say that this day is in reference to μιά των σαββάτων which means the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK.

...................

Your challenge here in this OP is to prove that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week and prove it from the scriptures.

Hope this helps

 

[Right Divider]

Actually no it isn't. REVELATION 1:10 is not referring to the second coming of "day of the Lord" it is referring to "the Lord's day" The Greek word used here is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day and the context of REVELATION 1 is not to the second coming but to "the day that John was in the "Spirit of". John is in the presence of JESUS in the Heavenly Sanctuary not the second coming.

You're quite the cut and paste artist.

No, the LORD'S DAY is one way of saying THE DAY OF THE LORD.

There is NO indication whatsoever that John is referring to a day of the week. What John is referring to is a JUDGEMENT.

This is also shown later when the Lord Jesus Christ says "Come up hither, and I will shew thee things which must be hereafter".

The thing which must be hereafter are judgments on the world.

 

[3rdAngel]

You're quite the cut and paste artist.

No, the LORD'S DAY is one way of saying THE DAY OF THE LORD.

There is NO indication whatsoever that John is referring to a day of the week. What John is referring to is a JUDGEMENT.

This is also shown later when the Lord Jesus Christ says "Come up hither, and I will shew thee things which must be hereafter".

The thing which must be hereafter are judgments on the world.

No not at all. It is only a subject I have prayerfully studied through the scriptures. Do you have something to add to the conversation? All you have done here is ignored all the scriptures and context demonstrated in the post you are quoting from and hand waiving and ignoring the post and scriptures that prove your intepretation of REVALTION 1:10 is not correct. Everything you have posted here is already addressed in the very post you are quoting from and your simply ignoring what has been shared with you from the scriptures without addressing anything and showing why you disagree. If you disagree dear friend, how about you address this post and scriptures that prove context is in the Heavenly Sanctuary and not the second coming and the "day that John was in the Spirit of" and the Greek word application used is to the "the Lords ownership of the day" John was in the Spirit of. If you cannot you have no excuse not to believe the scriptures shared with you in my opinion. Ignoring God's Word does not make it disappear. God's Word can be a blessing or a curse. It is a blessing to all those who receive and believe it and a curse to those who reject it and becomes our judge come judgement day *JOHN 12:47-48

 

[Right Divider]

No not at all. It is only a subject I have pratyerfully studied through the scriptures. Do you have something to add to the conversation?

The "Lord's day" is the "day of the Lord".

It is NOT a "day of the week".

All you have done here is ignored all the scriptures and context demonstrated in the post you are quoting from and hand waiving and ignoring the post and scriptures that prove your your intepretation of REVALTION 1:10 is not correct. Everything you have posted here is already addressed in the post you are quoting from and your simply ignoring what has been shared with you from the scriptures. If you disagree dear friend, how about you address this post and scriptures that prove context is in the Heavenly Sanctuary and not the second coming and the "day that John was in the Spirit of" and the Greek word application used is to the "the Lords ownership of the day" John was in the Spirit of. If you cannot you have no excuse not to believe the scriptures shared with you in my opinion. Ignoring God's Word does not make it disappear. God's Word can be a blessing or a curse. It is a blessing to all those who receive and believe it and a curse to those who reject it and becomes our judge come judgement day *JOHN 12:47-48

Blah blah blah...

In Greek, the LORD'S DAY is 100% equivalent to THE DAY OF THE LORD in Hebrew.

In Revelation 1:10 there is no point to a "day of the week", instead John was seeing the DAY OF THE LORD where God's judgement on the earth in view.

Your obsession with a DAY OF THE WEEK is your SDA false doctrine showing.

 

[oatmeal]

The "Lord's day" in Revelation 1:10 is NOT a reference to a day of the week.

It is referring to the day of the Lord when He executes judgment on the world.

Yes, that is correct

 

[steko]

The "Lord's day" is the "day of the Lord".

It is NOT a "day of the week".


Blah blah blah...

In Greek, the LORD'S DAY is 100% equivalent to THE DAY OF THE LORD in Hebrew.

In Revelation 1:10 there is no point to a "day of the week", instead John was seeing the DAY OF THE LORD where God's judgement on the earth in view.

Your obsession with a DAY OF THE WEEK is your SDA false doctrine showing.

Yep... same as 'day of Christ', also equals 'day of the Lord' and 'the Lord's day'.

2Th 2:2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

 

[Right Divider]

Yep... same as 'day of Christ', also equals 'day of the Lord' and 'the Lord's day'.

2Th 2:2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

:thumb:

Another example of the deity of Christ.

 

[Lon]

Hi All,
This thread is for scripture only. Is the "LORD'S DAY" that many proclaim SUNDAY according to the scriptures in the bible?

Well, scripture only is okay, but the Jewish calendar and Gregorian calendar aren't in sync. If you tried today, you'd have to switch days ever year to keep whatever day the Sabbath happened to be upon.

Then, as has been mentioned, "the Lord's Day" is a different issue than the Sabbath.

Both of these, imho, require reasoned discussion specifically because no scripture is going to tell you that there is a difference between our current calendar and how different it is from the Jewish calendar. -Lon

 

[3rdAngel]

The "Lord's day" is the "day of the Lord".

It is NOT a "day of the week".


Blah blah blah...

In Greek, the LORD'S DAY is 100% equivalent to THE DAY OF THE LORD in Hebrew.

In Revelation 1:10 there is no point to a "day of the week", instead John was seeing the DAY OF THE LORD where God's judgement on the earth in view.

Your obsession with a DAY OF THE WEEK is your SDA false doctrine showing.

Your just repeating yourself again dear friend without addressing the scriptures and the posts that disagree with you. This is already addressed in detail in post # 3 linked which proves your claims to "REVELATION 1:10 being to the second coming as being false because; the context is to JOHN being "in the Spirit" on "the Lords day" which in the Greek means the Lord's ownership of "the Day". Also the CONTEXT" is to John being in the presenece of JESUS in the "Heavenly Sanctuary" not the "second coming" or the Day of the Lord which is not the same as the "Lord's Day" or a day belonging to the Lord (κυριακή ημέρα). Revelations is also not written in Hebrew it is written in Greek so your argument is not relevant to Greek context and language meaning. All of this and more scripture however was already addressed in post # 3 linked, all you have done is ignore scripture and have not addressed anything you are quoting from. I do not mind if you disagree but if you disagree show why. So far all you have shown is that you choose to ignore the scriptures that prove why your interpretation is in error.

May you receive Gods' Word and be blessed.

 

[3rdAngel]

Yes, that is correct

Actually no it is not correct. Revelation 1:10 is a reference to a Day belonging to "the Lord that John was in the Spirit on, which is the context and meaning of the Greek words used κυριακή ημέρα [10] εγενόμην εν πνεύματι εν τη κυριακή ημέρα και ήκουσα φωνήν οπίσω μου μεγαλήν ως σάλπιγγος. The context is John being in the presence of JESUS in the Heavenly Sanctuary *REVELATION 1:11-13. If you disagree please address this post and post # 3 linked
that proves why REVELATION 1:10 does not mean the second coming.

 

[3rdAngel]

Yep... same as 'day of Christ', also equals 'day of the Lord' and 'the Lord's day'. 2Th 2:2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.[/COLOR]

Actually nope. The reason being is that "the Lord's Day" in the Greek is a reference to a Day belonging to the Lord that John was in the Spirit on, which is the context and meaning of the Greek words used κυριακή ημέρα [10] εγενόμην εν πνεύματι εν τη κυριακή ημέρα και ήκουσα φωνήν οπίσω μου μεγαλήν ως σάλπιγγος. The context is John being in the presence of JESUS in the Heavenly Sanctuary *REVELATION 1:11-13 and not the second coming (or Day of the Lord). If you disagree please address this post and post # 3 linked that proves why REVELATION 1:10 does not mean the second coming.

 

[3rdAngel]

Well, scripture only is okay, but the Jewish calendar and Gregorian calendar aren't in sync. If you tried today, you'd have to switch days ever year to keep whatever day the Sabbath happened to be upon. Then, as has been mentioned, "the Lord's Day" is a different issue than the Sabbath. Both of these, imho, require reasoned discussion specifically because no scripture is going to tell you that there is a difference between our current calendar and how different it is from the Jewish calendar. -Lon

Hi Lon, nice to meet you and welcome. Actually the calanders do not effect the Sabbath which is simply every seventh day of the week according to the scriptures *GENESIS 2:1-3; EXODUS 20:8-11. All the calander does is effect how many days are in the month. It does not effect a continual unbroken weekly cycle. The Jews have been keeping the Sabbath unbroken as a continous weekly cycle for 6000 years, Jesus kept it as did all the Aposltles according to God's 4th commandment and God's people have always kept it unbroken to this very present day as demonstrated through history. Thanks for sharing your thoughts Lon

God bless.

 

[3rdAngel]

In Greek, the LORD'S DAY is 100% equivalent to THE DAY OF THE LORD in Hebrew.

NONSENSE, but here is the reason why...

"The Lord's Day" in the Greek is a reference to a Day belonging to the Lord that John was in the Spirit on, which is the context and meaning of the Greek words used κυριακή ημέρα [10] εγενόμην εν πνεύματι εν τη κυριακή ημέρα και ήκουσα φωνήν οπίσω μου μεγαλήν ως σάλπιγγος.

Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries w/TVM, Strong - G2960 The Lord's day' κυριακός; kuriakos From G2962; belonging to the Lord (Jehovah or Jesus): - Lord's.

"The Day of the Lord" is a biblical term and theme used in both the Hebrew Bible (יֹום יְהוָה) and the New Testament. The Greek word for "the day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) uses a different Greek word to the Lords day as shown, as in "The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come" (Joel2:31, cited in Acts2:20).


Hope this helps.

 

[Right Divider]

NONSENSE, but here is the reason why...

"The Lord's Day" in the Greek is a reference to a Day belonging to the Lord that John was in the Spirit on, which is the context and meaning of the Greek words used κυριακή ημέρα [10] εγενόμην εν πνεύματι εν τη κυριακή ημέρα και ήκουσα φωνήν οπίσω μου μεγαλήν ως σάλπιγγος.

So you think that THE DAY OF THE LORD does not belong to the LORD?

You're not impressing anyone.

 

[3rdAngel]

So you think that THE DAY OF THE LORD does not belong to the LORD? You're not impressing anyone.

I am not trying to impress anyone as I am simply sharing the scriptures and asking for scripture in return in relation to the OP topic of discussion. You have provided none and when provided scriptures that disagree with you, it seems you do not believe them.

The reason why your claim that REVELATION 1:10 is not "the day of the Lord" (or second coming) is because that is not what the Greek says or the context to which it is applied. This was shown in detail in post # 3 linked and post # 15 linked that shows that...

"The Lord's Day" in the Greek is a reference to a Day belonging to the Lord that John was in the Spirit on, which is the context and meaning of the Greek words used κυριακή ημέρα [10] εγενόμην εν πνεύματι εν τη κυριακή ημέρα και ήκουσα φωνήν οπίσω μου μεγαλήν ως σάλπιγγος.

Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries w/TVM, Strong - G2960 The Lord's day' κυριακός; kuriakos From G2962; belonging to the Lord (Jehovah or Jesus): - Lord's.

"The Day of the Lord" is a biblical term and theme used in both the Hebrew Bible (יֹום יְהוָה) and the New Testament. The Greek word for "the day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) uses a different Greek word to the Lords day as shown, as in "The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come" (Joel2:31, cited in Acts2:20).


If you disagree I do not mind dear friend. Perhaps you can show why it is you disagree? So far you have only stated you do not believe the scriptures and the Koine Greek meaning and context shown that shows why your interpretation of REVELATION 1:10 is in error.

Ignoring God's Word does not make it disappear.

 

[Right Divider]

I am not trying to impress anyone as I am simply sharing the scriptures and asking for scripture in return in relation to the OP topic of discussion. You have provided none and when provided scriptures that disagree with you, it seems you do not believe them.

The reason why your claim that REVELATION 1:10 is not "the day of the Lord" (or second coming) is because that is not what the Greek says or the context to which it is applied. This was shown in detail in post # 3 linked and post # 15 linked that shows that...

"The Lord's Day" in the Greek is a reference to a Day belonging to the Lord that John was in the Spirit on, which is the context and meaning of the Greek words used κυριακή ημέρα [10] εγενόμην εν πνεύματι εν τη κυριακή ημέρα και ήκουσα φωνήν οπίσω μου μεγαλήν ως σάλπιγγος.

Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries w/TVM, Strong - G2960 The Lord's day' κυριακός; kuriakos From G2962; belonging to the Lord (Jehovah or Jesus): - Lord's.

"The Day of the Lord" is a biblical term and theme used in both the Hebrew Bible (יֹום יְהוָה) and the New Testament. The Greek word for "the day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) uses a different Greek word to the Lords day as shown, as in "The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come" (Joel2:31, cited in Acts2:20).

If you disagree I do not mind dear friend. Perhaps you can show why it is you disagree? So far you have only stated you do not believe the scriptures and the Koine Greek meaning and context shown that shows why your interpretation of REVELATION 1:10 is in error.

Ignoring God's Word does not make it disappear.

Your "Greeking" is meaningless. The CONTEXT of the use of the "Lord's day" does NOT fit with a day of the week. You are forcing (or tying to force) that mean on the text.

The Greek word in Rev in 1:10 is based on the same word used in other places. You are trying split hairs and are not proving anything.

κυριακός
kuriakos
koo-ree-ak-os'
From G2962; belonging to the Lord (Jehovah or Jesus): - Lord’s.
Total KJV occurrences: 2

κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748

The first is simply the possessive form of the second.

 

[Lon]

Hi Lon, nice to meet you and welcome. Actually the calanders do not effect the Sabbath which is simply every seventh day of the week according to the scriptures

Incorrect. The Julian (Hebrew) calendar, the Sabbath would be a different day each year or so, not "Saturday" for instance. While it makes no difference to Jews in B.C. it makes a huge difference for a 7th Day Adventist today: He/she is simply incorrect: the day isn't 'Saturday.' They'd have to change it every year (impractical), or simply, randomly, assign a day, but not be legalistic about it. They literally cannot follow the O.T. directive.

*GENESIS 2:1-3; EXODUS 20:8-11. All the calander does is effect how many days are in the month. It does not effect a continual unbroken weekly cycle. The Jews have been keeping the Sabbath unbroken as a continous weekly cycle for 6000 years, Jesus kept it as did all the Aposltles according to God's 4th commandment and God's people have always kept it unbroken to this very present day as demonstrated through history. Thanks for sharing your thoughts Lon

God bless.

It completely affects the week cycle. Read the link. Every few years, they 'reset' the calendar to keep up with the seasons. It means 'spirit' of the law vs. anything woodenly possible, even back then.

 

[3rdAngel]

Your "Greeking" is meaningless. The CONTEXT of the use of the "Lord's day" does NOT fit with a day of the week. You are forcing (or tying to force) that mean on the text. The Greek word in Rev in 1:10 is based on the same word used in other places. You are trying split hairs and are not proving anything. The first is simply the possessive form of the second.

Nonsense, but here is why. The Greek and Hebrew word meaning sometimes have multiple meanings. Interpretation of these words and the correct meanings are applied to the context to how they are written in both within scripture and chapter CONTEXT and subject matter. What you have failed to address is the context and subject matter of REVELATION 1:10 that κυριακή ημέρα (the Lord's day) is applied to. The context and subject matter is "the day that John was in the Spirit on" and both REVELATION 1:10-14 show that the subject matter is not to the second coming to which the "Day of the Lord" is always applied to but to John being in the presence of JESUS in the heavenly Sanctuary (seven golden candlesticks v12).

On the other hand everytime "the day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) as opposed to "the Lord's day" (κυριακή ημέρα) it is in reference to the 2nd coming of JESUS (see ACTS 2:20).

"The Day of the Lord" is a biblical term and theme used in both the Hebrew Bible (יֹום יְהוָה) and the New Testament. The Greek word for "the day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) uses a different Greek word to the Lords day as shown, as in "The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come" (Joel2:31, cited in Acts2:20).


It is the application of the Greek to context and subject matter that determines definition and interpretation. This is why what you propose is in error.

Hope this is helpful.