Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
It's Spiritually fulfilled in Christ.
The Lord told David that He would not "alter" the promises which He made to him. But according to you He did alter those promises and that makes the Lord a liar.
It's Spiritually fulfilled in Christ.
The Lord told David that He would not "alter" the promises which He made to him. But according to you He did alter those promises and that makes the Lord a liar.
Your idea is pathetic!
No, Jerry, I'm sorry to be late on this but Ps 89 answers your question before you asked. The Psalm is about Christ and the NT says so. It is not about David, who said Christ was His Lord. You have no business saying it is not.
The subject is this promise which the Lord made to David:
"Now therefore so shalt thou say unto my servant David...I will appoint a place for my people Israel, and will plant them, that they may dwell in a place of their own, and move no more; neither shall the children of wickedness afflict them any more, as beforetime" (2 Sam.7:8,10).
You can try to pervert the Bible all you want to but the fact of the matter is that this promisev was made to David.
But it is the consistent exegesis of Christ and the apostles that the 'Lord' in the psalm was not David.
You are right about Ps 89 of course. Actually in a parallel in Is 54, you'll find that the new form of fulfillment is how God answers the 'liar' accusation. He says that the Messiah's new kingdom will be like the days of Noah--a commitment not to devastate his people again, but that would be believers of the Messiah of ch 53. (The ethne was devastated by the DoJ).
The NT use of Is 53-55 is the crux of everything. I don't know of a NT use of Ps 89 but we do know that Acts 13 redirected the promises to David by quoting Is 55.
You don't seem to be aware that you are 'doing' the David passages without any comment by the NT, which makes us end up in entirely different places. It's not perversion at all, it is trying to put together what the NT actually says.
The Lord told David that He would not "alter" the promises which He made to him. But according to you He did alter those promises and that makes the Lord a liar.
The promises are fulfilled Spiritually in Christ 2 Cor 1:20
For all the promises of God in Him are Yes, and in Him Amen, to the glory of God through us.
You are mis-reading what the verse says because your interpretation makes the Lord a liar. Here is how A.R. Fausset understands the words "in Him":
"and in him Amen--The oldest manuscripts read, "Wherefore through Him is the Amen"; that is, In Him is faithfulness ("yea") to His word, "wherefore through Him" is the immutable verification of it ("Amen"). As "yea" is His word, so "Amen" is His oath, which makes our assurance of the fulfilment doubly sure. Compare "two immutable things (namely, His word and His oath) in which it was impossible for God to lie" ( Hbr 6:18 Rev 3:14 ). The whole range of Old Testament and New Testament promises are secure in their fulfilment for us in Christ"(Jamieson, Fausset & Brown, Commentary on 2 Corinthians 1)
This interpretation, unlike yours, does not make the Lord a liar.
Are we speaking about a promise or promises of God ?
So are you asserting that the Lord did in fact "alter" this land promise in "bold" that He made to David?:
"Now therefore so shalt thou say unto my servant David...I will appoint a place for my people Israel, and will plant them, that they may dwell in a place of their own, and move no more; neither shall the children of wickedness afflict them any more, as beforetime" (2 Sam.7:8,10).
"And move no more"!
The promise the Lord made to David at 2 Samuel 7:10 was not fulfilled in the first century so its fulfillment will happen after that. God also said that He would not "alter" the promises which He made to David:
"I have made a covenant with my chosen, I have sworn unto David my servant...Nevertheless my loving-kindness will I not utterly take from him, nor suffer my faithfulness to fail. My covenant will I not break, nor alter the thing that is gone out of my lips. Once have I sworn by my holiness that I will not lie unto David" (Ps.89:3,33-35).
According to your interpretation of 2 Corinthians 1:20 the Lord lied to David because He altered those promises despite the fact that He said that He would do no such thing!
Are we speaking about a promise or promises of God ?
Perhaps your use of "alter" is misplaced. God did not alter the fact that His promise to David would come to pass. God chooses how those promises are fulfilled. They were not fulfilled according to man's ideas, but by the zeal and purpose of God.
You are stuck on a literal fulfillment pertaining to the land.
David's throne is never said to be in the third heaven. Acts 2:29-32 KJV is stating, that the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ was the assurance, the promise, that, from David's loins, THE KING, the Lord Jesus Christ, would "sit on his throne", "his throne" being David's throne! This throne is on the earth, where the Lord Jesus Christ will reign over all the earth, with Israel as the head nation.Again, David's throne was on earth. It was never said to be in the third heaven.
Here we can see a prophecy which speaks of the time when the Israelites will be brought back to the promised land and move no more:
"Behold, I will take the children of Israel from among the heathen, whither they be gone, and will gather them on every side, and bring them into their own land...And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant, wherein your fathers have...Moreover I will make a covenant of peace with them; it shall be an everlasting covenant with them: and I will place them, and multiply them, and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore. My tabernacle also shall be with them: yea, I will be their God, and they shall be my people" (Ez.37:25-27).
Here we read that the Lord will set His sanctuary in the midst of the Israelites for ever. And the Israelites "shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob.." Therefore, in the future the Lord will set His sanctuary in the midst of the children of Israel for evermore at the time they will dwell in the land that God gave to Jacob.
And that matches perfectly with the promise which the Lord made to David concerning the land which He gave to Jacob.
If a literal fulfillment is not in view then it would make no sense to specify the land as the land the Lord gave Jacob.
How can you spiritualize that away?
The promises here in regard to the land are in regard to more than one promise: