Freelight,
It appears that C. moore is emphasizing the blood of Christ as that which 'washes' our sins away - makes us clean.
If you paid close attention to my posts, you would see that I agree that the blood of Christ is what actually forgives our sins. But unless one does what is commanded for the remission of those sins, baptism, the blood of Christ will do that person no good.
Kevin & rene is emphasizing the act of water baptism as the means of washing ones sins away (for remission) - more or less.
Yup, just as it was done in Acts 2:38.
Well.........I think its been said before that water cannot wash away sins!
There's nothing magical about the water. It's obeying what God commanded us to do for the remission of sins is why we are washed clean of our sins. This of course is only possible because Christ shed his blood.
The pure cleansing of the soul/conscience comes about thru divine inspiration, faith and spiritual regeneration - these are in cooperation with renewal of the mind/repentance......calling upon the name of the Lord.
Yeah... and Paul was told to be batpized as he called on the name of the Lord.
Transformation comes via renewal of the mind
Yes it does. That's where it all begins. But is a person transformed, knowing Christ without obedience to His commandmetns? No, becaue 1John 2:3-4 clearly says that we know if we know Christ depending on wether or not we obey His commandments.
Kev, you are ever hilighting Acts 2:38 - much is a language issue - one is baptized 'because of' the remission of sins
Once again we have the tired casual 'eis' argument that holds no water. Funny how I've
never seen any translation translate 'eis' to "because of". That's nothing more than a desperate attempt to discredit the many scholars who came before and translated it "for", which is the correct rendering. I can show you over 50 translations that do NOT render it "because of".
Looking at Romans 6, we see that is through baptism that the old man of sin is crucified, and that baptism is how we die with Christ. Now, looking at Rom. 6:7, it says that
those who have died have been freed from sin. That is a
conditional statement. Who has been freed from sin? Those who have died. How do you die with Christ?
BAPTISM. There's no doubt that Romans 6 speaks of a baptism that frees you from sin, therefore baptism is FOR the remission of sins, just as correctly rendered in Acts 2:38.
I dont think this command by 'Peter' (notice not Jesus)....is implying that the physical act of dunking in water is what remits(washes/cleansing) your sin
So WHAT if Peter said it and not Jesus. Peter commanded it because CHRIST commanded it to be done in the Great Commission (Matt. 28:19-20). Why do you think Peter commanded it?
And yes, Peter is indeed implying that baptism is for the remission of sins, because that's exactly what he said!
Your quote of Matt. 28: 19 - supposedly of Jesus ....says nothing about being baptized 'for'(because of) the remission of sins. This is an implication imposed.
Supposedly of Jesus?! You need some serious help. You are the first person I've EVER ran into that implied that Jesus was "supposedly" speaking in Matt. 28:19-20. Oh man..... that's just sad.
Secondly, I can back up why Christ commanded baptism, that it was indeed for the remission of sins. Christ said to
preach the gospel and baptism them, did he not? Yes.
Now what did Peter, who Christ said He was going to build His church on, do? He
preached the gospel and he commanded them to be
baptized FOR THE REMISSION OF SINS. Do you think it's mere coincidence that Peter did EXACTLY as the Lord commanded? It's no coincidence, and Acts 2:38 clearly shows that baptism was FOR, not because of, the remission of sins.
We have to re-evaluate your claim that Christ commanded baptism 'for the remission of sins'.
See above and tell me that it's just a coincidence.
The so called 'great commission' mentions baptism. I mentioned that this verse may be suspect as an interpolation supporting the Trinity doctrine
:doh: :doh: As Francisco said, this claim at best is, laughable. Actually, no, it's sad. Anything that is in the Bible that goes against your doctrine is "suspect". :down:
anyhow....Christ doesnt mention this being done 'for the remission of sins' as you deem such so important.
Again, see above.
Gospel of Mark - using the long conclusion(version) vs. 9-20 (not in the earliest manuscript).....
Just because verses 9-20 do not appear in
some of the ancient manuscripts is not reason to throw it away. For indeed, verses 9-20 ARE found in the Alexandrian and in a lot of the uncial ancient manuscripts. Also, early church Fathers such as Irenaeus and Tatian, who lived in the 2nd Century, cited from these verses, as well as Hyppolytus and Dyonisius of Alexandria (3rd Century).
Then there's the fact that Mark 16:16 is in complete harmony with Matthew's account of the Great Commission. I find your evidence, lacking.
Christ does not say that one who is not baptized will be damned.....but only those who do not believe.
Well of course. Why would Christ need to include baptism when He is speaking of the damned? If one doesn't believe, then they certainly aren't going to get baptized into something that don't believe! If they don't believe, they are already lost, for belief is where it all begins. You don't get to second base if you cant even get to first base.
One cannot interject that Jesus here is saying that baptism is essential for salvation...
Actually, one can interject that very thing, because Jesus said that those who believe AND are baptized will be saved. You CANNOT seperate two things that are joined by the word "and". If I tell you go to the store and by "milk and cookies", and you only come back with milk... did you fulfill what I asked for? No. Likewise, if you only believe, you did not fullfil what Christ included in the requirements for salvation: baptism!
because elswhere he gives qualifications for salvation in the gospel accounts which do not include the necessity of baptism.
Weak argument. There are a lot of verses that deal with salvation. Do we pick and choose the ones we like and omit the ones that don't agree with our doctrine,
or do we take the WHOLE counsel of God into consideration? I can show you a verse where Christ say that unless you repent, you will perish (Luke 13:3). There's nothing mentioned about belief in there... so is that no longer necessary? This is what happens when you pick and choose.
What Christ does emphasize and teach is faith....and this is the primary essential.
I agree. But faith "alone" is not what Christ taught.
Gospel of Luke - no where here does Jesus teach/instruct baptism 'for the remission of sins' - in fact in his final address he says - "that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem" - 24:47 No mention of baptism here.
You're not doing your position any favors. This verse SUPPORTS my argument. Tell me, how was remission of sins "in His name" done, beginning in Jerusalem? It happened on the day of Pentecost,
in Jerusalem. Peter preached Christ, and they received remission of sins in His name how? Look:
Acts 2:38 (MKJV)
38) Then Peter said to them, Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ to remission of sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
Peter preached Jesus, beginning at Jerusalem, and had those people sins forgiven "in the name of Jesus Christ" through
baptism. The gospel of Acts 2 is the fulfillment of Luke 24:47.
Gospel of John - I already shared how one verse says Jesus baptized...but is later invalidated by a later verse - see 3:22...then...4:2. Still, this gospel bears no evidence that Jesus instructed his disciples to baptize 'for the remission of sins'.
Are you speaking of the baptism of John? What are you getting at here?
Acts - it should be noted as well that 8:37 is not found in some of the earlier texts (Phillips dialogue with the Ethiopian man).
But it is found in others, and is in complete harmony with the Bible. Acts 8:37 goes hand in hand with what Paul was speaking about in Romans 10:9-10 (if you believe with your hear and confess with your mouth you will be saved....). That's EXACLTLY what's going on here. And because of that belief and confession, he was baptized in water for the remission of sins. Believing and confessing go hand in hand with baptism.
In this book....various apostles teach and instruct baptism...following after the tradtion of Johns baptism - but we should take note....that the the baptism that Christ baptizes us with is a spiritual baptism (with Spirit and fire) - it is NOT a water baptism.
The apostles did NOT baptize with John's baptism, and those that still baptized with John's baptism (like Apollos) after the death on the cross, were tuaght more correctly.
No, the apostles baptized people
in the name of the Lord, which is NOT the same as John's baptism. We know from Acts 10:47-48 that baptism in the name of the Lord uses WATER, and we know that John's baptism is different from baptism in the name of the Lord from Acts 19:5 where those people of John's baptism were rebaptized in the name of the Lord.
Also, man cannot baptize with Spirit and fire. Yet, Christ certainly did command people to be baptized in His name Matt. 28: 19-20. That's exactly what the apostles did, starting in Jerusalem as correctly stated in the Luke passage you pointed out. Why would the apostles go out and baptize people with John's baptism when Christ had already died? Makes no sense.
Pauls teaching - It should be noted that Paul had a spiritual understanding and application of 'baptism' - it was not only water baptism that Paul referred to in his letters.
To the Romans - (6:1- 6) Paul speaks of being baptized(immersed) 'into' Christ Jesus - the 'buried' with Him in baptism is noted as a spiritual baptism - this is not speaking of a water baptism.
Wrong. Wouldn't it make sense that Paul would write about the same baptism that he practiced? The fact is, upon Paul's preaching, people were baptized in the name of the Lord (Acts 19:5), which is done with
water (Acts 10:47-48).
Paul himself said he was not sent to baptize......BUT TO PREACH THE GOSPEL. (1 Cor. 1: 14-17). Paul considered the preaching of the cross (the gospel/his gospel)........more imortant than baptizing.
Paul was merely saying that preaching was his main purpose. If you look at the context of those passages, you would see why he said what he did. They were having divisions of WHO baptized them. That's why he said "I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius,
lest any should say that I had baptized in my own name (verses 14-15).
That's the reason he said what he did... not because baptism didn't play a role in salvation.
The primary concept of spiritual baptism is comsummated well in this writing of Paul - "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body - all have been made to drink into one Spirit'. (1 Cor. 12: 13)
Well yes, what do you think led those people in Acts 2 to be water baptized for the remission of sins? The Holy Spirit working through Peter. By One Spirit, they were baptized into Christ. If it weren't for the working of the Holy Spirit, they wouldn't have been convicted of their sins and consequently been water baptized for the remission of sins.
To the Galations - Paul continues his concept of baptism - "For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have 'put on' Christ." (3:27).
Yes, and again, what baptism did Paul practice? Baptism in the name of the Lord (Acts 19:5), which uses water (Acts 10:47-48).
To the Ephesians - Paul speaks of one baptism - this being one being baptized into Christ by one Spirit. This baptism is one being immersed into Christ....and the Spirit of Christ coming in and upon the believer.....grafting him into the body of Christ....as a living member. (4: 5)
See above.
To the Colossians - Paul speaks again of being "buried with Him in baptism....in which you also were raised with him". This baptism into Christ is a kind of burial(identified with Him in His death/burial)...then arising with Him thru resurrection in newness of Life. This baptism is an immersion into Christ...bring carried in Him thru death, burial and resurrection. It is essentially spiritual - this immersion into and communion with Christ in spirit.
Same thing. The baptism he speaks of is the one he practiced, and even though it involves water, it most certainly has a spiritual purpose.
Peter teaches that baptism( is not the mere physical act of the removal of the flesh{circumcision}, but the answer of a good conscience towards God) thru the resurrection of Christ. Likewise it is logical to assume that the mere act of water baptism does not avail.....but one truly of a good conscience who has died and been buried in Christ(baptism)....also shall be resurrected in that same Spirit of Christ.....and walk in newness of Life.
So at what point did Peter stop water baptizing in the name of the Lord, as in Acts 2:38? Would he not be referring the baptism that NOW SAVES YOU? He mentioned that it's not the removal of flesh to show that baptism's purpose is not for a physical cleansing. This does not mean that the baptism Peter is speaking here did not involve water, for he
compared it to how Noah was saved through WATER.
The act of being baptized is indeed the result of a good conscience, knowing that one has obeyed what Christ commanded for salvation - baptism in His name. Look at the Etheopian eunuch in Acts 8: 37-39. He went on his way
rejoicing AFTER (not before) he was baptized. The reason for this is simple, he knew that he had obeyed the commandments of God, which includes being baptized for the remission of sins - he certainly had a good conscience, knowing he had obeyed God.