ECT The content of faith, required to be believed, in Mt.-John, prior to the dbr

Danoh

New member
Matt. 4's bomb, eh; now that is hilarious - talk about reading one's books based notions into a passage or two.

Hah - forget the bomb, Inter; as to Matt. 4, you've laid your stink egg about that before - back on that site where you and I first encounteted one another.

You were off then, and your are twice as off now.

Matt. 4 - good one, lol
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Matt. 4's bomb, eh; now that is hilarious - talk about reading one's books based notions into a passage or two.

Hah - forget the bomb, Inter; as to Matt. 4, you've laid your stink egg about that before - back on that site where you and I first encounteted one another.

You were off then, and your are twice as off now.

Matt. 4 - good one, lol



Danoh, you don't need to say you oppose the view. You need to answer the view. You have not. All Syria heard about him through what happened there. His MAD PR handler messed up.
 

Danoh

New member
Danoh, you don't need to say you oppose the view. You need to answer the view. You have not. All Syria heard about him through what happened there. His MAD PR handler messed up.

Try doing the history of the issue as to Galilee of the Gentiles.

Here; I'll save you some money - do said history in Scripture.

Start aaaaalllllll the way back in 2 Kings.

Sheesh...
 

turbosixx

New member
If you are not careful, you might take what you are about to read wrong, but, I believe it needs to be pointed out.

The method you have just suggested reveals an incompetence on your part as to how to handle such surface level, first impression seeming errors.

The proper response is NOT to right off reach for ANY "resource" - including other "translations" - or the Greek, or what have you, for help as to "whatever could this passage in my KJB be talking about?"

The proper response is to remain in the KJB as to the overall scope and context in which a writer is saying what he is, until enough time in the KJB results in so many passages and narrative stored up within the mentality of one's soul that, next thing one knows, the passage in question is has ended up not only no longer an enigma, but one finds one now "knows" or has a profound grasp of a much deeper understanding of it.

There is nothing mystical about this. It is the result of actually laboring in the Word one on one with it.

You rob yourself of that - you and those who right off reach for another "translation" and or the Greek this, Vine's that, and so on...

If we want to really want to "know" how someone else lives, the way to do that is to go and live in their world with them until it is somewhat our own.

The fact is that Paul's point is THE VERY SAME POINT HE OPENS ROMANS 11 WITH.

From much time in my KJB WITH Paul in his words - what Paul is talking about is the issue that it APPEARS that Israel has FOREVER fallen; that it APPEARS that God is FOREVER through with that nation.

Have they stumbled that they should fall? Have they stumbled so and to where they have FOREVER fallen, it's over; God is forever through with them?

Paul has already established earlier in Romans that such is NOT the case.

That the actual case is that of JUST ONE MORE OF MANY EXAMPLES THROUGHOUT ISRAEL'S HISTORY where it had ALSO appeared AS IF God was through with Israel.

But Paul is WELL AWARE of God's Promise TO - HIM - SELF AS TO THIS ISSUE.

Paul is WELL AWARE that to conclude from SEEMING appearances that God is through with HIS "Covenant unto THEM" is to speak evil OF GOD HIMSELF!

Thus, Paul's "God forbid!" For what THAT ACTUALLY CALLS INTO QUESTION!

Romans 3:3 For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect? 3:4 God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged.

It IS ALL THERE in my KJB - no other "translation" needed - no Greek, no fool going by the name of "Faither" ACTUALLY CHANGING passages, need apply.

This fool needs none of it.

Problem is, Turbosixx, you and yours are not only playing with a fully loaded semi-automatic weapon when EVER you handle the KJB, but one with a highly sensitive hair trigger - off it goes each time you approach it from YOUR confusion.

The thing to do when you set it off to find you have once more shot yourself in the foot - the thing to do EACH TIME you find you have done that - is to go all Miesha Tate once more, get back in there, and keep getting back in there until its Championship belt is at last yours.

Fact is, as to Romans 11...the way to understand the passages as is, is ALWAYS - MORE passages...

Malachi 3:6 For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.

I appreciate your concern and point of view but I stand by my method.

I don’t understand why some view the KJV as the ONLY approved version of God’s word. Is there a scripture that says so or has God given his stamp of approval only to it? Fact is the original NT was written in Greek so the KJV had to be translated into English form Greek. It’s a word for word translation but it isn’t the only one. I like the NASB, which also is a word for word translation from the original Greek just like the KJV. It was translated using current grammar and terminology just like the KJV. I reject the thought-for-thought translations and the more recent translations are absolute garbage. If the KJV is the only real word of God then I guess all the non-English speaking people of the world are doomed.

Looking at verse 11 we’ve been discussing and comparing the two versions, I find the NASB to be better in this case. The KJV uses the English word fall twice but it’s actually two different Greek words in the original text. It makes logical sense that since two different Greek words were used the intent is they are different types of a fall. Is the NASB better in every case, no but that’s why look at both and also go to the Greek. It appears that some stick ONLY to the KJV and rely on it’s outdated vernacular in order to preserve their version of truth or otherwise it would fall apart.

I also don’t see you using context like you claim. Jesus said the kingdom was at hand and upon them. When Jesus was teaching the people about the kingdom and said the kingdom of God is like ________. Do you see the kingdom of prophecy and that is “on hold” or do you see the church?
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
I appreciate your concern and point of view but I stand by my method.

I don’t understand why some view the KJV as the ONLY approved version of God’s word. Is there a scripture that says so or has God given his stamp of approval only to it? Fact is the original NT was written in Greek so the KJV had to be translated into English form Greek. It’s a word for word translation but it isn’t the only one. I like the NASB, which also is a word for word translation from the original Greek just like the KJV. It was translated using current grammar and terminology just like the KJV. I reject the thought-for-thought translations and the more recent translations are absolute garbage. If the KJV is the only real word of God then I guess all the non-English speaking people of the world are doomed.

Looking at verse 11 we’ve been discussing and comparing the two versions, I find the NASB to be better in this case. The KJV uses the English word fall twice but it’s actually two different Greek words in the original text. It makes logical sense that since two different Greek words were used the intent is they are different types of a fall. Is the NASB better in every case, no but that’s why look at both and also go to the Greek. It appears that some stick ONLY to the KJV and rely on it’s outdated vernacular in order to preserve their version of truth or otherwise it would fall apart.

I also don’t see you using context like you claim. Jesus said the kingdom was at hand and upon them. When Jesus was teaching the people about the kingdom and said the kingdom of God is like ________. Do you see the kingdom of prophecy and that is “on hold” or do you see the church?


He is 2P2P.
 

Danoh

New member
Get your labels right; I am 2FP (Two-Fold Purpose)...

DP is actually 2P2P...

STP is actually 3P3P...

And what's its name in Star Wars is C3P0...

Whoops, now you're once more PO'd...

:chuckle:
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
If you abandone one of the purposes at least you'll be closer, but if you void or replace the promise like those addressed in Gal 3:17 did, then nothing has been gained. As far as I know, Paul was referring to post-exilic Judaism, which read the OT in veiled fashion, not how it reads in Christ. Paul did not want the Promise voided or replaced, so if your two-folds is doing that, there's nothing NT about it.

The mission of God is the justification of mankind. there is only a very limited way in which the ownership of real estate in Judea can serve that.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
But the 2nd fold is so minute as to not matter. That is the long view taken by the NT. That is why the land, theocracy, worship system no longer matters. It was the misguided leadership of post-exilic Judaism that made it necessary for Paul to say Gal 3:17; that's who he meant. He grew up in it.

when you read the conclusion of Heb 11 (in HEBREWS!), it doesn't even matter that they were in the land that was promised! Nothing really mattered until Christ came, or, it is what Christ accomplished that was the reality which the shadow was about.

while we are at it, why do you used the 'folds' analogy instead of the Biblical shadow vs reality?
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
But the 2nd fold is so minute as to not matter. That is the long view taken by the NT. That is why the land, theocracy, worship system no longer matters. It was the misguided leadership of post-exilic Judaism that made it necessary for Paul to say Gal 3:17; that's who he meant. He grew up in it.

when you read the conclusion of Heb 11 (in HEBREWS!), it doesn't even matter that they were in the land that was promised! Nothing really mattered until Christ came, or, it is what Christ accomplished that was the reality which the shadow was about.

while we are at it, why do you used the 'folds' analogy instead of the Biblical shadow vs reality?

Think about the job the LORD God gave Adam to do.
To subdue all things.

That's why the Land still matters...to God.
 

Danoh

New member
There is no second fold - which of one's arms is his first, and which is his second - one's right, or one's left arm?

Neither...

But, Interplanner thinks he sees 2P2P being described :rotfl:
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Think about the job the LORD God gave Adam to do.
To subdue all things.

That's why the Land still matters...to God.


Extremely irrelevant, my friend. Adam was not in Judea when that was commanded, so don't capitalize Land. So far as I can tell, both at creation and after the deluge, the tendency was for the earth to overgrow chaotically, and God was asking for there to be order and stewardship.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
There is no second fold - which of one's arms is his first, and which is his second - one's right, or one's left arm?

Neither...

But, Interplanner thinks he sees 2P2P being described :rotfl:


So...forget the fold business because you are already uncommunicating by using it two different ways. Why is the primary Biblical theological way of relating all of the above as the era of 'shadow' vs the era of 'reality'?
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
As an example to the younger generation that is overly guided to communicate in images instead of mental images, please spend more time thinking about what you are saying and less time clicking on cartoon icons to include and 'protect' yourself with.
 
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