Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Sorry dude, it is the correct understanding. All you need to do is accept John 20:22 as written. The "Promise of the Father" is what the now "Body of Christ" had to wait for which was the Acts 2 event. That part is not arguable either..
How could anyone receive the Holy Spirit at that time since the Holy Spirit had not yet been sent?:
"But now I go my way to him that sent me; and none of you asketh me, Whither goest thou? But because I have said these things unto you, sorrow hath filled your heart. Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you" (Jn.16:5-7).
It is impossible that they had received "the Holy Spirit" because the Lord Jesus had not yet departed to be with the Father when He spoke the words at John 20:22.
You are totally confused.