musterion
Well-known member
Since Paul never used the term "age of grace" and Interplanner knows that he cannot quote Paul using that term why in the world does he continue to insist that Paul used that term?
I am puzzled!
You've been gone awhile so maybe you never saw it, but Tet (and then IP who came later) insisted WE define dispensation as a set period of time when (as far as I've read) none of us do so. I even posted this more than once but Tet ignored it. So does IP. The reason they keep doing this is their preterism demands it.
They are liars, suppressing truth in unrighteousness and hypocrisy...they KNOW that's now how we define the term but keep on with it.