Jarrod, you make your case that John may have been intentionally ambiguous in his wording in 1.1: Do you believe he intended that ambiguity to lead to the above conclusion? It seems but a short step to me. For this reason I argued vigorously against it ~ not against you, my friend, but against the idea of ambiguity when there is none. I invite you and KingdomRose and others who may be so inclined to revisit the posts in this thread; there are not that many of them. See for yourselves. John's wording is precise, concise, definite, and succinct: The Word was not only with the God. God was the Word as well!
I agree that John was precise and concise. He meant to DISTINGUISH BETWEEN GOD ALMIGHTY AND THE WORD. The Word, Jesus, was with God...and yet the Word was merely "divine" (as per Moffatt),or, "a god," which meant what his audience then would have understood to mean
an important, powerful, respected individual. Not God Almighty.
The Word is not the one-and-only God, but is "a god," or divine being. The fact remains that that is what John wrote. As one scholar wrote: "His purpose in doing so was, at least in part, to avoid the notion that God the Father himself incarnated as Christ.
The one who incarnated was somehow DISTINCT from 'God,' while still being 'a god.'" And what did the term 'god' mean to the people who read John's Gospel in the first century? I said it above. An important, respected, powerful person.
The New World Translation has been denounced by many as being biased. The same scholar says: "It may very well be that the NWT translators came to the task of translating John 1:1 with as much bias as the other translators did [for they ALL translated with bias]. It just so happens that their bias corresponds in this case
to a more accurate translation of the Greek."
He further says: "The noun
theos ('god') in the nominative (subject) form is used 298 times in the New Testament. In 274 of those occurrences,
the definite article is used. The definite article specifies that the reference is to 'the god,' that is, 'God,' with three exceptions. In 2 Corinthians 4:4, Paul refers to 'the god of this age,' meaning Satan. In Philippians 3:19, he speaks of those for whom 'the god is the belly' (one could arguably translate this as 'God is the belly'). Acts 14:11 speaks of 'the gods' in the plural, referring to the pantheon of Greco-Roman paganism. The exceptions show that 'god' can be used in the New Testament as
part of the jargon of the times in which it was written. People around the early Christians spoke of 'gods,' and the New Testament authors used this language to communicate important ideas....I have no doubt that the wording of John 1:1 is careful and deliberate in its every detail. John was doing a very tricky thing: trying to express Jesus' exalted status
without violating monotheism. This has been a challenging task throughout Christian history, and John was the first person to tackle it. I think we owe it to him, therefore, to stick as closely to his words as we can, and not contort them into something else."
Truth in Translation by Jason BeDuhn, pages 113-134.
The Word was NOT God.