I think the Westminster Divines were going around in circles.
An argument for your position in place of an assertion of your position would help, no?
I have plenty. See
here as a start.
The big question is whether everything is God's decree from the foundation of the world, or are some things His decree and other things not. If God doesn't look down the corridors of time to decide what things to decree, then He must decree all from His own designs, which means He is the author of evil, despite what the confession says.
Again, an argument in place of an assertion would help, no?
See
here as a start.
God's own designs include the necessary, free, contingent aspects. Proximate and antecedent causes are at play here, so I hope no one, even the non-Calvinist, denies God is the First Cause of all that happens, so there is no escape for any of us on the point. I just happen to be convinced from Scripture that the Reformed view does the best justice to God's sovereignty.
You seem to struggle with the fact that the God who spoke the universe into existence, revealed in Scripture as wholly sovereign, while also revealed in Scripture to hold man responsible, is not able to do both. I suspect you want to know
how exactly that all works. I do not know for it is not revealed. I know the
Who (God), so the
how and the
why is not troubling to me as it is for the humanistic types that will dilute God's right to rule as He sees fit to satisfy their urges to explain Him in their own terms, or save Him from Himself.
Who but God can fully comprehend how an action that was known of God before it was done can be freely performed by man? However, our inability to understand how something should actually come to be is not sufficient ground for affirming that it cannot be.
:wave:Ooh, ooh, let me try...
Openists have cornered the market in rejecting God's accommodations to our finitude when it suits them. Are you an open theist? Baptist? What exactly?
Is it not conceivable that God’s purpose behind these words was in fact to elicit from him such earnest, heartfelt dependence on God in prayer? God granted to Hezekiah
fifteen years of extended life – not two, not twenty, and certainly not, "we’ll both see how long you live," but fifteen years
exactly. Does it not seem a bit odd that this favorite text of the openist, which purportedly demonstrates that God does not know the future and so changes His mind when Hezekiah prays, also shows that God knows
precisely and
exactly how much longer Hezekiah will live? On openness grounds, how could God know this given the fifteen year span of enormous contingencies? The number of future freewill choices, made by Hezekiah and innumerable others, that relate directly to Hezekiah’s life and well being, none of which God knows (in the openness view) is enormous. Of course, the openist will just wave it off saying, well, God is really, really, smart, and able to do some really, really, good predicting of what may happen and plan for it. Yet, seems to me
p=1.0 is not probabilistic at all, rather it is the certainty that comes from ordaining.
Openists seem to think prayer is to inform God, but I recall it is not "Your will be formed," but "
Your will be done". :AMR:
There is also the observation that God here was teaching Hezekiah his utter dependence upon Him, a purpose to bring Hezekiah to the awareness of his need for
a child. I assume all know why, too, if anyone appreciates the historical context.
In a
reductio ad absurdum tactic, let's grant the openist view that God changed His mind. Did God literally change His mind? The openist argues, as I implied above, God is really smart, knowing us better than we know ourselves. So, God knows Hezekiah would plea for his life if he had the ability to do so. Exactly then, how is God surprised by all of this, learning something new and changing His mind after accreting new knowledge (getting smarter by the nanosecond)? If Hezekiah's plea was no surprise to God, did God really change His mind?
If God decrees everything, and if scripture is fatalistic, then it has to apply to all of scripture, not just a cherry-picked example of God's eternal purpose/decree in sending a savior for mankind.
I am trying to be patient here with you. I do not know if you are just being winsome to keep the discussion moving hoping I will take the bait, or you are demonstrating a decidedly superficial attitude towards my carefully worded posts, and reading into them more than I am saying. I outlined two different examples of what may be called "fatalism" (recall the
equivocality of the word).
In Acts 2:23 we read, “Him [
Christ], being delivered by the
determined purpose and
foreknowledge of God,
you have taken by lawless hands, have crucified, and put to death” (emphasis mine).
This verse clearly teaches that the crucifixion of our Lord was planned, predicted, and determined before it happened and all the devils in hell or men on earth could not keep Jesus from the cross—it was determined by a sovereign God. Yet at the same time, wicked men—
acting freely—were charged with this wicked act.
In Acts 4:24—30, God puts these two truths side by side without apology or explanation.
The example of the cross is exemplary of all that happens, for God's decree encompasses all that will happen. God foreknows because He has decreed, and that which is decreed cannot
not happen, else God could not know. The decree includes all the necessary, free, contingent aspects, too, and in executing His decrees in providence, brings about different classes of events in a way that is in
full accordance with their own distinct, proper natures.
AMR