musterion
Well-known member
That already do (Ge 3:16).
I don't know Hebrew or Greek, I can only read a lexicon like anyone else. Does that actually say the woman will love the man?
That already do (Ge 3:16).
That goes to the idea that she should giver herself for him. Wrong. That isn't the obedience that the feminist man and woman want. She is not his slave. But the man should slave for his wife and children. If necessary.
This includes providing for them and sacrificing himself for them if needed.
Agape (hospitality love, unselfish love)
The husbands are told to Agape their wives.
This includes providing for them and sacrificing himself for them if needed.
[Ge 3:16] ...Does that actually say the woman will love the man?
She must love God over him (Ge 3:16). A wife submits supremely to Christ and secondarily to her husband. She is not treasonous if she puts Christ first (Piper).It would be assumed members of Christ - knowing what He did for us - would love Him without needing told to love Him.
The "desire" there is not love.That already do (Ge 3:16).
[Ge 3:16] The "desire" there is not love.
That is exactly my thought. And the woman is not to do this for him.
That goes to the idea that she should giver herself for him. Wrong. That isn't the obedience that the feminist man and woman want. She is not his slave. But the man should slave for his wife and children. If necessary.
Close, but believers are told to love God as well as submit/reverence/fear Him, so something is missing from the comparison.Thinking out loud here. Show me where I'm missing anything.
1. The husband (literally or analogously) the head of the wife (v. 23) just as Christ is literally Head of the Church which is His Body.
2. Since He loved us enough to give Himself for us, husbands are likewise to love the wives as He loved us, sacrificially if need be. No argument there.
3. Wives, in turn, are to submit/reverence/fear their husbands as all members of Christ are to reverence Him, but they are not specifically instructed to love their husbands.
4. It would be assumed members of Christ - knowing what He did for us - would love Him without needing told to love Him.
Maybe you are trying to read too much into it.Would that be the simplest reason Paul didn't bother telling wives to love husbands? Given that he was speaking more broadly of Christ and His Church (yes Tet, we knew that), did Paul assume that wives would love their husbands just as it's safely assumed believers love Christ? Or am I trying to read into Paul's marriage/Body analogy more than he intended to convey?
Numbers 30:2-8 2 If a man vow a vow unto the Lord, or swear an oath to bind his soul with a bond; he shall not break his word, he shall do according to all that proceedeth out of his mouth. 3 If a woman also vow a vow unto the Lord, and bind herself by a bond, being in her father's house in her youth; 4 And her father hear her vow, and her bond wherewith she hath bound her soul, and her father shall hold his peace at her; then all her vows shall stand, and every bond wherewith she hath bound her soul shall stand. 5 But if her father disallow her in the day that he heareth; not any of her vows, or of her bonds wherewith she hath bound her soul, shall stand: and the Lord shall forgive her, because her father disallowed her. 6 And if she had at all an husband, when she vowed, or uttered ought out of her lips, wherewith she bound her soul; 7 And her husband heard it, and held his peace at her in the day that he heard it: then her vows shall stand, and her bonds wherewith she bound her soul shall stand. 8 But if her husband disallowed her on the day that he heard it; then he shall make her vow which she vowed, and that which she uttered with her lips, wherewith she bound her soul, of none effect: and the Lord shall forgive her. |
Does not address the question in the o.p.
First off, Paul said great is the mystery Adam prophesied.
He was only speaking of one part of that great mystery.
Christ and the church.
Secondly the OP is wrong.
Love and obey, that the word of God be not blasphemed.
Y'all been watchn' too much of the history channel.
1 But as for you, speak the things which are proper for sound doctrine:
2 that the older men be sober, reverent, temperate, sound in faith, in love, in patience;
3 the older women likewise, that they be reverent in behavior, not slanderers, not given to much wine, teachers of good things--
4 that they admonish the young women to love their husbands, to love their children,
5 to be discreet, chaste, homemakers, good, obedient to their own husbands, that the word of God may not be blasphemed.
Why did he not tell wives to love their husbands? Did he assume that they always would love them and so didn't need telling?
The over translation of the word love perhaps. I don't do much with the Greek, being that I don't read, write or speak it. But others do. We know he isn't telling husbands to turn on feelings which is not possible. And he says to love her as Christ loves the church.
Some say that love is to serve.
Why did he not tell wives to love their husbands? Did he assume that they always would love them and so didn't need telling?
Why did he not tell wives to love their husbands? Did he assume that they always would love them and so didn't need telling?