Your "reasoning" seems to be your persistent stonewalling against the question of why driving drunk should be deemed criminal even without one's having had an accident.
Why should drunk driving be deemed criminal even without the drunk driver having had an accident?
Because it "has the potential to cause harm"?
Well, obviously not. You, yourself, already crossed that one out, when you said:
According to you, an action's having "the potential to cause harm" does not qualify it to be rightly deemed criminal, thus, the action of driving drunk is not qualified by "the potential to cause harm" to be rightly deemed criminal. So, you've not yet answered the question:
What (if anything) about drunk driving qualifies it to be rightly deemed a criminal act?
Here are some "answers" you have farted out in your stonewalling against this question:
- Drunk driving should be deemed a criminal act because to not deem it so
- Drunk driving should be deemed a criminal act
- Drunk driving should be deemed a criminal act because
L:freak:L