Obviously, I am not Lon, but...
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?p=4287442#post4287442
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?p=2232479#post2232479
There are a range of exegetical issues tied up with this passage, and many of them are interlocking. If the perspective of Christ refers to His Person
before He became man (the classic view), "robbery" or a similar sense is required because equality with God is understood to be already in possession. Others suppose it is speaking from the perspective that Christ
has already become man, and then the idea is that as man He did not stand on His divine dignity. This suggests the idea that equality is something not in possession and therefore yet to be attained or "
grasped."
Another issue concerns “form” (
morphe), which is classically understood to refer to essential attributes of divinity. ESV following RSV translates "was," so one must either deny that “form” (
morphe) means essential attributes, or one has to suppose Christ divested Himself of these when He became man. If the former, a clear testimony to the divinity of Christ is erroneously lost. If the latter, the erroneous
theory of kenosis is established, hence the classical understanding is correct.
AMR