ECT Our triune God

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Could you imagine eternal childbirth ... I'm a guy and I can't even imagine the regular variety.

I'd say "eternal generation" would be more lexically correct. I use many homogenous terms with historical Trinitarianism as a demonstration of solidarity in some sense. I've found that it reduces cognitive dissonance.

Ginomai can be perceived and understood linguistically as a copula; the eternal state of being as timeless uncreated generation by/from the Father.

Perpetually-caused timeless being with no beginning.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Is it the case that when He uses "Son of Man" He exclusively refers to His humanity and that when He uses "Son of God" He exclusively refers to His deity?

I don't know--I'm asking as I haven't done a complete study of it (but I doubt it).

When you do the necessary copious research, you'll find it's the inverse; thus nullifying the entire silliness of the position.

"Son of God" is reference to the Davidic King, the promised "house" or lineage. His humanity.

"Son of Man" is reference to the Incarnation. God condescending to be manifest in the flesh. His divinity (conjoining His humanity).

2Samuel 7, Psalm 2, Psalm 45, Hebrews 1, and Psalm 110 are a start at looking for all context and references for this understanding, and especially Daniel 9 for He who comes as the Son of Man.

It's a long-held common conflation.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
"Son of God" is reference to the Davidic King, the promised "house" or lineage. His humanity.

No, the term "Son of Man" was employed when referring to the Davidic King:

"I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of Man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed" (Dan.7:13-14).​

When the Jews heard the Lord Jesus say that He is the Son of God and that God is His Father they understood that He was making Himself equal with God:

"Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his father, making himself equal with God" (Jn.5:18).​
 
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PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Thank you for your kind words! :) I, too, appreciate those like yourself who think deeply about these things.

Because you are placing such emphasis on noumenon and phenomenon in this post and the others as "the necessary core discussion for understanding", I'll hold off commenting until you locate/link to some definitions or provide them live.

No hurry--take your time. I see a conceptual and metaphysical muddle with your explanation of the Incarnation but those definitions might help to clarify. I'll come back to it and explain what I mean and address the rest of your points if I don't hear back in the next few days just to keep the discussion moving.


I'm finding that discussion seems to have begun on phaino in post #2732, and has sporadically continued from then until the current posts on the topic. Here is the definition of phaino/phenomenon/noumenon from that post.


Phaino; to shine, to appear, be conspicuous, be seen, seem, be thought.

It indicates how a matter phenomenally shows and presents itself with no necessary assumption of any beholder at all. This suggests that something may shine without anybody necessarily seeing it, contrasted to something that exists but does not shine. Nooumenon is that which is conceived in the mind, but does not have any objective existence and does not necessarily manifest itself.

Phainomenon is that which manifests itself, appears or shines, and must have a reality behind it. It cannot be just the figment of the imagination. Therefore, phainomai is often synonymous with eimi, to be, and ginomai, to become. It may also have no substance, yet presupposes one.

Dokeo, to think, has in contrast the subjective estimate which may be formed of a thing, not the objective showing and seeming which it may actually possess. One may dokei (think) something which may not have an objective reality. However, something that shines, phainei, must exist objectively.



The substance and objective reality behind God's uncreated phaino is His hypostasis, the foundational underlying substantial objective reality of existence.

Prosopon is face, presence, appearance, person. The Septuagint utilizes prosopon in reference to God's face when Moses asks to look upon God. And we know God has presence and appearance, for every hypostasis has its own proper prosopon; and Hebrews 1:3 tells us the Son is the express image (charakter) of God's hypostasis.

In abbreviated summary, this indicates that God is eternal transcendent uncreated Self-Noumenon (Self-Consciousness) and eternal transcendent uncreated Self-Phenomenon (Self-Existence). By His Logos, God is exhaustively and unabridegedly Self-Conscious of Himself as Self-Existent Spirit.

Rhema is the thing thought and spoken about, and the Logos is the intelligent comprehension and rational reasoned wise apprehension of the Rhema as subject matter. Since there's NO creation, including NO uncreated heaven, there's no thing (nothing) else for God to think and speak about except His hypostasis and all it underlies and presents. So God's Rhema (the -ma suffix meaning "result of", and reo meaning both "to speak" and the parallel of "to flow") is His (SINGULAR) hypostasis as the substance spoken forth by the Logos.

Both God and His inherent Logos are eternal uncreated phenomenon and noumenon as actuality of Self-Conscious Self-Existence. Creation is merely noumenon as potentiality, pending instantiation into actuality of existence when given phenomenon. And it is God's Rhema (of His dunamis) that carries forth and upholds creation, thrust as the Sword of the Spirit by the Logos.

God alone (and His literal Logos) is uncreated phenomenon. Heaven and the cosmos are created phenomena; the invisible and the visible creation. The intangible and the tangible.

In God's innate eternity, infinity, immutability, immateriality, aseity, and all other incommunicable attributes, He is Self-Noumenal Self-Phenomenal Spirit with Logos. His Spirit is both phenomenon and noumenon, as is His Logos.

The eternal uncreated Logos is phenomenally the Logos and noumenally the Son, just as God is phenomenally the Father AS Spirit and noumenally the Holy Spirit (though these are distribution into noumenal creation, not separation). So at the divine creative utterance, God spoke/breathed forth the noumenal Logos and Pneuma out from (exerchomai/ekporeuomai) His phenomenal "Self" as Spirit. And this expression/exhalation of His eternal uncreated Logos and Pneuma instantiated creation into phenomenal actuality of existence from noumenal potentiality of existence (Ex Nihilo) when/as the uncreated eternal Son and Holy Spirit proceeded forth/proceedeth.

It was at this instantiated existence of created phenomena that the eternal Logos proceeded forth as the eternal Son; just as the eternal noumenality of Himself as Spirit was set apart (hagios) into creation as the Holy Spirit.

God's Logos is relative to His own singular hypostasis, the hypostasis being the very subject matter as the content and substance of eternal intuitive expression by His Logos. When the Son came (heko), it was the arising of the Logos from God's uncreated phenomenal hypostasis into the created phenomena of heaven. The Son is not the Father, but is the literal eternal uncreated Logos of the Father; the same hypostasis disinct in another phenomenal existence as creation with a prosopon to appear and have presence in the phenomena of creation, later taking on human flesh in the Incarnation.

Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are phenomenally distinct, not hypostatically distinct. God is Uni-Hypostatic and Multi-Phenomenal. The Orthodox formulaic, like all anathemas, began after procession and creation, still attempting to include procession and creation.

It LOOKS and FUNCTIONS like there could be three hypostases/prosopa because of multi-phenomenal distinction between Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

The Father as phenomenal uncreated eternal Spirit co-inhered with the procession of the noumenal uncreated eternal setting apart of His Spirit into creation; just as He co-inheres with the eternal uncreated phenomenal Logos processed as the Son into noumenal creation.

A transcendent hypostasis with an in-shining transcendent prosopon as unapproachable light in which He dwells (Father). That same hypostasis risen (heko) into created phenomenon as the Son with localized heavenly presence as a distinct prosopon that is shared with the omnipresent Holy Spirit with which He qualitativley co-inheres. The only thing missing from the Orthodox formulaic is the individuated prospon for the Holy Spirit, which is why it took so long to declare one for Pneumatology.

This is just a blip of a summary. There's copious exegesis and lexicography that is too voluminous to present in this venue.
 
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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
"Son of God" is reference to the Davidic King, the promised "house" or lineage. His humanity.

No, the term "Son of Man" was employed when referring to the Davidic King:

"I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of Man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed" (Dan.7:13-14).​

When the Jews heard the Lord Jesus say that He is the Son of God and that God is His Father they understood that He was making Himself equal with God:

"Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his father, making himself equal with God" (Jn.5:18).​
 
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fzappa13

Well-known member
I'd say "eternal generation" would be more lexically correct. I use many homogenous terms with historical Trinitarianism as a demonstration of solidarity in some sense. I've found that it reduces cognitive dissonance.

I'll take your word on that. Hope you're not going to use TOL's reactions as evidence at that trial though. ;)

Ginomai can be perceived and understood linguistically as a copula; the eternal state of being as timeless uncreated generation by/from the Father.

Perpetually-caused timeless being with no beginning.

The Bible describes Jesus as the only begotten (born of a woman?) Son of God (Elohim?) who was the beginning of God's creation and subordinate to Him. I'm not sure I understand how God can be subordinate to Himself much less cause Himself to be born. The verses that so many love to hang their doctrinal hat on (the beginning of the gospel of John) speaks of a beginning. What beginning do you suppose was being referred to there?
 
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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
The Bible describes Jesus as the only begotten (born of a woman?)

When the word "begotten" is used in regard to the Lord Jesus in this verse the reference is to His resurrection from the dead:

"God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee" (Acts 13:33).​
 

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
The Bible describes Jesus as the only begotten (born of a woman?) Son of God (Elohim?) who was the beginning of God's creation and subordinate to Him. I'm not sure I understand how God can be subordinate to Himself much less cause Himself to be born. The verses that so many love to hang their doctrinal hat on (the beginning of the gospel of John) speaks of a beginning. What beginning do you suppose was being referred to there?

Evidently some eternal backwardness...... during which God had no time to think of anything else but himself. :kookoo:

Cause there wudn't any time yet, God's hypostasis busted a move on him.

But it was okay you see, cause God knew this hypostasis dude...... :)
 
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1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
When the word "begotten" is used in regard to the Lord Jesus in this verse the reference is to His resurrection from the dead:

"God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee" (Acts 13:33).​

Wow. You got one. :BRAVO:
 

aikido7

BANNED
Banned
This thread is specifically for triune believers. No other need or should post here.

I'm personally boycotting these cultists threads against our view. I have found none of them are here to learn a thing and they certainly don't make a cogent or compelling presentation. Its a waste of bandwidth and time from my experience. This thread is for posting material to help us on our way.
Even Hitler took the Bible seriously. Every believer finds their own way by studying the Bible.
 

fzappa13

Well-known member
When the word "begotten" is used in regard to the Lord Jesus in this verse the reference is to His resurrection from the dead:

"God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee" (Acts 13:33).​

I think 1 Peter 1:3 a better argument for your position but when you follow the OT verse you offered the word used therein (yalad) most commonly refers to childbirth though an alternate meaning is "to bring forth." When you collect all the verses with a word translated as "begotten" the most common in the Greek is "monogenēs" which is always used to describe a son or daughter with the additional meaning of being "one of a kind." The disciple whom Jesus loved used this term exclusively. Paul more often used the term "gennaō" which more closely mirrors the English term "begotten." As the vast majority of the uses of both of these words argues for their common usage I think pointing toward two verses to argue for another meaning for the rest has the tail wagging the dog as it were.
 
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fzappa13

Well-known member
Evidently some eternal backwardness...... during which God had no time to think of anything else but himself. :kookoo:

Cause there wudn't any time yet, God's hypostasis busted a move on him.

But it was okay you see, cause God knew this hypostasis dude...... :)

I'm not sure what you are saying here. You're writing style is nothing if not unique. Are you suggesting that God underwent some change in an environment before time was? ... or maybe better said, outside of time, that resulted in Jesus?
 
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Soror1

New member
The Lord Jesus was not in the heavenly sphere when He said those words. Instead, He was on the earth. Besides, Paul makes a distinction between our earthly body and our future heavenly body here:

"For we know that if our earthly house of this tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens. For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven" (2 Cor.5:1-2).​

Here is how Paul describes the resurrected bodies which Christians will possess when they enter the heavenly sphere:

"So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption: It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power: It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body" (1 Cor.15:42-44).​

So when we read that flesh and blood cannot enter the kingdom of God we know that we will not have a flesh and blood body:

"Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption" (1 Cor.15:50).​

When we will enter the heavenly sphere we will possess a body which is from heaven, a spiritual body which is not a flesh and blood body.
But we will remain human...

I agree with all of this up to this point.

...thereby proving that a flesh and blood body is not essential to humanity.

And even this because you have coupled "flesh and blood" as not being essential to being human. It is not flesh and blood but it is the flesh only that is essential to being human.

"And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us"

Earlier I said:

"But I cannot see how your ideas can possibly be reconciled to what is said at Hebrews 13:8. According to you the Lord assumed another nature at the Incarnation but yet His very nature did not change. That makes no sense to me."

To this you quoted the Confession of Chalcedon, which did not even address anything about Hebrews 13:8. Could you please address what I said in your own words. It would be greatly appreciated.
If Jesus shares the immutable essence of deity, there are some conclusions which logically follow. One of them is that the immutable Word of God is not intrinsically changed by assuming flesh/human nature. His flesh/human nature is dependent on His deity, just as we are.

Yes, I believe that when the Lord Jesus uses the term Son of Man he is referring to His humanity. After all, why would He use the term "Son of Man" if He was saying something about His nature as God?

Daniel 7 would be one reason--which was understood as a claim of deity at the time as further evidenced by the charge of blasphemy in Matthew and Mark:

Jesus said to him, “You have said so. But I tell you, from now on you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power and coming on the clouds of heaven.” 65 Then the high priest tore his robes and said, “He has uttered blasphemy. What further witnesses do we need? You have now heard his blasphemy.
 

Soror1

New member
No, the verses which speak of the Lord Jesus being begotten refers to His resurrection (Acts 13:33). But that happened in "time" so that is not in regard to an "eternal begottenness."

The locus is the word monogenes as found in John 1:18, 3:16, 1 John 4:9.

Since (as I think you agree) the Son is eternal but yet as we see above also begotten, He's eternally begotten.
The term "eternally begotten" is found in the Nicine Creed. Those from the church at Rome address the term "eternally begotten" in the following way:

"We have to be careful to understand this term. It is often used as synonymous with "to be born" but it really means "to cause to be." Even though the Son is eternally existent, the Father "causes him to be." God is the cause of his own existence."

If the Father causes the Lord Jesus to be then it appears that the Father has a superior position to that of the Lord Jesus.

There is no "superior" or "inferior" in the being of God. It is best to think of the Father as the principle (rather than cause as in motion) of the Son.

Nothing about this makes any sense and the term "eternally begotten" is not found in the Bible. And for good reason.

But it's there implicitly as He's both eternal and monogenes.

How would you explain it?
 
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Soror1

New member
I'm finding that discussion seems to have begun on phaino in post #2732, and has sporadically continued from then until the current posts on the topic. Here is the definition of phaino/phenomenon/noumenon from that post.


Phaino; to shine, to appear, be conspicuous, be seen, seem, be thought.

It indicates how a matter phenomenally shows and presents itself with no necessary assumption of any beholder at all. This suggests that something may shine without anybody necessarily seeing it, contrasted to something that exists but does not shine. Nooumenon is that which is conceived in the mind, but does not have any objective existence and does not necessarily manifest itself.

Phainomenon is that which manifests itself, appears or shines, and must have a reality behind it. It cannot be just the figment of the imagination. Therefore, phainomai is often synonymous with eimi, to be, and ginomai, to become. It may also have no substance, yet presupposes one.

Dokeo, to think, has in contrast the subjective estimate which may be formed of a thing, not the objective showing and seeming which it may actually possess. One may dokei (think) something which may not have an objective reality. However, something that shines, phainei, must exist objectively.



The substance and objective reality behind God's uncreated phaino is His hypostasis, the foundational underlying substantial objective reality of existence.

Prosopon is face, presence, appearance, person. The Septuagint utilizes prosopon in reference to God's face when Moses asks to look upon God. And we know God has presence and appearance, for every hypostasis has its own proper prosopon; and Hebrews 1:3 tells us the Son is the express image (charakter) of God's hypostasis.

In abbreviated summary, this indicates that God is eternal transcendent uncreated Self-Noumenon (Self-Consciousness) and eternal transcendent uncreated Self-Phenomenon (Self-Existence).

Thanks for all of this and what followed. I'm off to work so I'll be back to discuss. In the meantime, if you have a chance, could you explain the relationship between "Nooumenon is that which is conceived in the mind, but does not have any objective existence" and God's hypostasis ("the foundational underlying substantial objective reality of existence") as relates "God is eternal transcendent uncreated Self-Noumenon (Self-Consciousness)"?

If I were to plug in the definitions, I think I get a foundational underlying substantial objective reality that is uncreated self-conceived in the mind, but does not have any objective existence-consciousness.

Not being pedantic (at all) but trying to understand how they relate/inter-relate.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
And even this because you have coupled "flesh and blood" as not being essential to being human. It is not flesh and blood but it is the flesh only that is essential to being human.

Paul says that "flesh and blood" cannot enter into the heavenly sphere but you say that "flesh" can:

"Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption" (1 Cor.15:50).​

Not just blood but also flesh cannot enter into the heavenly sphere. Earlier I said:

"When we will enter the heavenly sphere we will possess a body which is from heaven, a spiritual body which is not a flesh and blood body.

But we will remain human..."

To this you said:

I agree with all of this up to this point.

Despite that you continue to insist that the body we will have when we enter the heavenly sphere will be one of flesh. Do you really think that a spiritual body is made of of flesh?

If Jesus shares the immutable essence of deity, there are some conclusions which logically follow. One of them is that the immutable Word of God is not intrinsically changed by assuming flesh/human nature. His flesh/human nature is dependent on His deity, just as we are.

So you are saying that even though the Lord Jesus became human when born of Mary that His very nature did not change then. According to your idea He originally had just one nature and then when He took on another nature He was not changed at all!

I have heard some ridiculous things on this forum and that idea of yours has to top the list. I can only see a desperate effort on your part to answer this verse:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

Daniel 7 would be one reason--which was understood as a claim of deity at the time as further evidenced by the charge of blasphemy in Matthew and Mark:

Jesus said to him, “You have said so. But I tell you, from now on you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power and coming on the clouds of heaven.” 65 Then the high priest tore his robes and said, “He has uttered blasphemy. What further witnesses do we need? You have now heard his blasphemy.

The high priest understood that the Lord Jesus was claiming to be God because the Lord Jesus answered the following question asked by the high priest:

"But Jesus held his peace, And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God" (Mt.26:63).​

It makes no sense to think that the high priest thought that the Lord Jesus was claiming to be God because He used the term "Son of Man."
 

Arsenios

Well-known member
Paul says that "flesh and blood" cannot enter into the heavenly sphere but you say that "flesh" can:

Did not Jesus Himself ascend bodily?

Did not Paul too ascend into the 3rd Heaven, whether in the body or out of the body, he did not know?

Will not our bones be reclothed with flesh?

Did not the dead rise from their tombs and walk the earth at the Resurrection of our Lord?

Paul wrote that our sensual, corruptible, and fallen flesh and blood shall not enter into the Kingdom of Heaven, meaning that our hearts must be purified from the rulership of the KINGDOM of the flesh and its blood in order that it ENTER the Kingdom of Heaven in obedience to the rulership of its King, Jesus Christ...

Arsenios
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Did not Jesus Himself ascend bodily?

Yes, but before entering the eternal state His body was changed into a spiritual body. This is what Paul says about the eternal state:

"While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal" (2 Cor.4:18).​

While we are in our physical bodies on the earth we are not equipped to see the things which are eternal. That rules out the idea that the body which believers will put on in heaven will be flesh bodies.

While on the earth we cannot see God's face (1 Tim.6:16) but when we enter the eternal state with our spiritual bodies we will see His face (Rev.22:4).

Will not our bones be reclothed with flesh?

No, flesh and blood cannot enter into the eternal kingdom.

Did not the dead rise from their tombs and walk the earth at the Resurrection of our Lord?

Yes, but they were on the earth and not in heaven.

Paul wrote that our sensual, corruptible, and fallen flesh and blood shall not enter into the Kingdom of Heaven, meaning that our hearts must be purified from the rulership of the KINGDOM of the flesh and its blood in order that it ENTER the Kingdom of Heaven in obedience to the rulership of its King, Jesus Christ...

No, Paul was speaking strictly of the kind of bodies we will put on when we enter the eternal kingdom. The context demonstrates that fact.
 

Arsenios

Well-known member
The substance and objective reality behind man's phaino is His hypostasis, the foundational underlying substantial objective reality of his existence.

PPS said:
Prosopon is face, presence, appearance, person.

You left out the primary meaning in the Greek: MASK... That which is SEEN, which HIDES that which is NOT SEEN... It is a feature of FALLEN MAN...

The Septuagint utilizes prosopon in reference to God's face when Moses asks to look upon God.

And this Face of God is categorically OTHER than the human prosopon/mask... Indeed, the prosopon of Moses had to AVOID looking upon this Prosopon of God...

And we know God has presence and appearance, for every hypostasis has its own proper prosopon;

God is the Creator of presence and appearance and hypostasis and prosopon... The Creator is not the created...

and Hebrews 1:3 tells us the Son is the express image (charakter) of God's hypostasis.

The IMPRESS indeed... Hypostasis would seem here to mean ESSENCE, yes? The foundational feature of the BEING [ousia] of Him, indeed His very BEGOTTENNESS... The Father being the Stamp which impresses [characterizes] the Son in Essence...

In abbreviated summary, this indicates that God is eternal transcendent uncreated Self-Noumenon (Self-Consciousness)

Only if God is understood as COSMIC MIND....

and eternal transcendent uncreated Self-Phenomenon (Self-Existence).

Only if this COSMIC MIND SELF-PHENOMENALIZED ITSELF...

By His Logos, God is exhaustively and unabridegedly Self-Conscious of Himself as Self-Existent Spirit.

His Logos being the Noumenal Thoughts of the Cosmic Mind that God IS...??

Rhema is the thing thought and spoken about, and the Logos is the intelligent comprehension and rational reasoned wise apprehension of the Rhema as subject matter. Since there's NO creation, including NO uncreated heaven, there's no thing (nothing) else for God to think and speak about except His hypostasis and all it underlies and presents. So God's Rhema (the -ma suffix meaning "result of", and reo meaning both "to speak" and the parallel of "to flow") is His (SINGULAR) hypostasis as the substance spoken forth by the Logos.

Yes, we must now work our way DOWN from Cosmic Min, eg God, way on down to our own temporary temporality...

I am beginning to see why you need so many words...

To wit:

Both God and His inherent Logos are eternal uncreated phenomenon and noumenon as actuality of Self-Conscious Self-Existence. Creation is merely noumenon as potentiality, pending instantiation into actuality of existence when given phenomenon. And it is God's Rhema (of His dunamis) that carries forth and upholds creation, thrust as the Sword of the Spirit by the Logos.

God alone (and His literal Logos) is uncreated phenomenon. Heaven and the cosmos are created phenomena; the invisible and the visible creation. The intangible and the tangible.

In God's innate eternity, infinity, immutability, immateriality, aseity, and all other incommunicable attributes, He is Self-Noumenal Self-Phenomenal Spirit with Logos. His Spirit is both phenomenon and noumenon, as is His Logos.

The eternal uncreated Logos is phenomenally the Logos and noumenally the Son, just as God is phenomenally the Father AS Spirit and noumenally the Holy Spirit (though these are distribution into noumenal creation, not separation). So at the divine creative utterance, God spoke/breathed forth the noumenal Logos and Pneuma out from (exerchomai/ekporeuomai) His phenomenal "Self" as Spirit. And this expression/exhalation of His eternal uncreated Logos and Pneuma instantiated creation into phenomenal actuality of existence from noumenal potentiality of existence (Ex Nihilo) when/as the uncreated eternal Son and Holy Spirit proceeded forth/proceedeth.

It was at this instantiated existence of created phenomena that the eternal Logos proceeded forth as the eternal Son; just as the eternal noumenality of Himself as Spirit was set apart (hagios) into creation as the Holy Spirit.

God's Logos is relative to His own singular hypostasis, the hypostasis being the very subject matter as the content and substance of eternal intuitive expression by His Logos. When the Son came (heko), it was the arising of the Logos from God's uncreated phenomenal hypostasis into the created phenomena of heaven. The Son is not the Father, but is the literal eternal uncreated Logos of the Father; the same hypostasis disinct in another phenomenal existence as creation with a prosopon to appear and have presence in the phenomena of creation, later taking on human flesh in the Incarnation.

Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are phenomenally distinct, not hypostatically distinct. God is Uni-Hypostatic and Multi-Phenomenal. The Orthodox formulaic, like all anathemas, began after procession and creation, still attempting to include procession and creation.

It LOOKS and FUNCTIONS like there could be three hypostases/prosopa because of multi-phenomenal distinction between Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

The Father as phenomenal uncreated eternal Spirit co-inhered with the procession of the noumenal uncreated eternal setting apart of His Spirit into creation; just as He co-inheres with the eternal uncreated phenomenal Logos processed as the Son into noumenal creation.

A transcendent hypostasis with an in-shining transcendent prosopon as unapproachable light in which He dwells (Father). That same hypostasis risen (heko) into created phenomenon as the Son with localized heavenly presence as a distinct prosopon that is shared with the omnipresent Holy Spirit with which He qualitativley co-inheres. The only thing missing from the Orthodox formulaic is the individuated prospon for the Holy Spirit, which is why it took so long to declare one for Pneumatology.

This is just a blip of a summary. There's copious exegesis and lexicography that is too voluminous to present in this venue.

See what I mean?

The defense rests...

Arsenios

One simply cannot, using fallen human logic, INFER God's Nature from its fallen Ikon which we see in ourselves... Even if augmented by Scripture and revelation... The Faith of Christ is OBEDIENCE, not INFERENCE...
 
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