Trying to figure out how it fits with His morality (thread). Ty
Perhaps a different thread for discussion: For me, if one omni, all of them by
definition and logic but answers a different thread than this one, unless I'm just not making the connection.
Sorry, that sentence does not make sense to me.
I'm opposed to a limitation of any kind on God
You could not hope to maintain such a position rationally.
Is the God of scripture, Vishnu?
Is the God of scripture a murderer?
No?
There's two limitations.
That took me three seconds to think of. There are probably ten billions things that God is not!
Place your allegiance at the feet of reality not your personal desires to believe in a "limitless god", whatever that even means.
lest He 'has to come down to hear my specific prayer at any given time.' Unless He is omnipresent, then when I'm talking He cannot hear you
God doesn't hear your prayers because He's omni anything!
You a mere human being might need to have your ears in the same room as someone speaking in order to hear what they say but God is not a mere human being. God can "hear" you even if you never audibly speak a single word.
(sorry for your objection if it comes here, according to Open paradigms where God has no idea what is going on in Sodom and Gomorrah).
Stupid thing to say. Lon, if you don't know what you're talking about just keep your mouth shut, okay!
No open theist anywhere or at any time has ever said that God had no idea what was going on in Sodom and Gomorrah.
You understand that if you are forced to exaggerate some position with which you disagree then you aren't really disagreeing with it, right? Disagreeing with a caricature of Open Theism isn't the same thing as disagreeing with actual Open Theism. It's a form of lying really and the worst kind of lying where you are the primary target of your own lie.
Of course any of us looking in are going to ask this because it looks exactly like the logical supposition and problems such brings to mind. The link above, I think you'll find pleasing and interesting in that a Calvinist agrees with you that 'Word' should be translated 'logic.'
There are lots of people who agree with that because it really is the way it should be translated. I certainly didn't come up with it myself. In fact, I quote a prominent Calvinist in my "Our Moral God" essay where I argue the point.
I tend to be more in line with William Lane Craig (Logic and order extend from His creative work and are a reflection of His nature, rather than similarly saying "God is Moral."
What's the difference?
In the article, and mayhap this is where it ties into your morality discussion: God isn't 'subject' to morality and logic, it is rather subject and consistent to Him as Lord of everything.
Nonsense. Literally, nonsense.
If God is amoral or illogical then how could it make any sense for morality and logic to be subject to him? How can morality be subject to the amoral? How can logic be subject to the irrational?
It isn't so much a disagreement, as a way of trying to explain the character and nature of God as 'revealed' to us. Thus, what we use for logic is how 'consistently we' apprehend the logic, morality and nature of God.
You are contradicting yourself. Logic is consistency! "Consistent" is what the word "true" means!
Further, you are trying to squirm your way around the validity of sound reason and you're trying to use logic to do it! You are literally trying to make a LOGICAL ARGUMENT for why you can't trust our use of logical arguments!
As I said a few pages back. On the morality issue, I think we tend to agree, but may not agree on how best to explain. The Omni's of God, of course, are another conversation.
It isn't really because, if God really exists, then He, like the rest of reality, doesn't contradict Himself. That's all of logic in a single sentence. Reality exists (law of identity) and does not contradict itself (laws of contradiction and excluded middle).
The only question really is where do you get your ideas about God from? Do you get them from scripture and from natural law (i.e. special and general revelation) or do you get them from Aristotle and Socrates? If from the later then the Omni's cannot be logically avoided. If from the former then all of the Omni's, as normally understood, are overstatements and are not consistent with reality (i.e. not true), and need to be modified.
In short, is the bible true or not and what means do you have of deciding the answer to that question other than by use of sound reason? The bible is the source of special revelation and logic is the source of general revelation and sound reason is the means of understanding and applying both.
Concern yet: does such serve this thread premise? If so, please address what the rest of us who are not Open Theist, are seeing as incredibly problematic if the muse is willing. That is, if it serves the thread, otherwise another time (not pressing, and I've seen attempts at an answer just none that have been memorable/workable for the theology). Thank you for a moment for the interjection regardless of an answer, appreciate the listen. In Him, at your discretion. -Lon
So just what, specifically, is it that you find so "incredibly problematic"?