You used a lot of words for what should have been a simple request.
What does "vanilla Roman Catholicism simpliciter" mean?
I asked for a definition, not a bunch of waffle.
It applies to the entirety of scripture.
Or do you think that Paul's writings are not "the oracles of God"? I wouldn't be surprised if you didn't.
I WOULD be VERY surprised if you thought that Peter's, James's, John's, writings, etc, are not "the oracles of God."
Peter calls Paul's writings scripture.
Remember what I said?
Scripture was scripture the moment it was written, not when it was compiled into a book.
Saying it doesn't make it so.
Do you not think God had a hand in deciding which would be considered scripture?
False.
Last I checked, humans can't very well affect natural phenomena. God can, though. Which means even those are not much of an argument for your side.
I'll let you think about that one for a moment, within the context of my argument.
No, YOU come on!
You're being intentionally obtuse here.
A "will" is the ability to choose otherwise.
Wills are, by definition, free. In other words, if it's not free, it's not a will.
If God infallibly knows that someone will do something, such as answering a phone at a specific time, then they will not do otherwise, by definition, thus they will not do it freely, because they do not have the ability to choose otherwise.
So Trump could not, on a whim, change his mind at the very last second, and refrain from pushing the send button?
If not, then He does not have a will.
This is called begging the question.
How do you know it's ruled out?
Do you have more knowledge than God?
People can do things they don't normally do. Like changing their mind.
That's EXACTLY what you're saying.
Don't, can't, what difference does it make on your view?
The future is settled, and their decision is set in stone. They don't change because they cannot change.
No, Idolater, it's not possible. It is logically impossible for God to have infallible foreknowledge of something, and for there to be any possibility of it not happening.
Why?
Because of the very definition of infallible.
If something does not come to pass, when it should have, or it does, when it should not have, then it cannnot have been infallibly foreknown either way.
That's the entire point, Idolater!
What you're describing is not infallible foreknowledge!
If God knew, infallibly, that you would answer the phone tomorrow at 9 a.m., and then you died (God forbid) tonight at 7 p.m., that would contradict the infallibility of God's knowledge!
1 + 1 = 2
1 + 1 does not equal "all knowledge."
It doesn't even mean "infallible knowledge."
It just means there's more knowledge than what you had originally.
No, you don't.
You're making a claim, "all cars are red."
When you make such a claim, "all cars are red," it's easy to point to a single red car and say, "see, this demonstrates my claim.
But all it takes is for me to point to a single blue car for your claim to be completely and utterly refuted.
Likewise, you can claim "we have Biblically provable infallibility," and point to a few passages that affirm your claim.
But all it takes is for me to point to a single passage in scripture that contradicts you for your claim to be completely and utterly refuted.
Would you like for me to demonstrate? Go on, point to a passage that affirms your claim, "we have Biblically provable infallibility."
Predicting, not infallibly knowing.
HUGE difference!
What we do not have is infallible foreknowledge of our future actions.
No.
Because:
God knowing at least what we know does not mean God knows everything infallibly.
That would be a non-sequitur. It doesn't follow.
In other words, you still haven't established anything remotely showing that what I posted earlier is wrong, that infallible foreknowledge means no free will.
Because I agree with scripture, which shows that He had no idea about some situations, circumstances and conditions that came to pass!
Not a single one of those things fall into the category of what we're talking about right now.
And even if they did, it STILL wouldn't prove your position.
Why?
Because God can intervene! He has the ability to do so! He can CHANGE THE OUTCOME!
Meaning that whatever happens is NOT INFALLIBLY FOREKNOWN!
Yes.
Conversely, if God has a will, then the future is not settled.
You clearly do not understand what the context of that "test" is, nor do you correctly perform it.
The test is NOT about things that will happen shortly.
It's about things that will happen in the future, and specifically, by those who claim to speak for God.
It ALSO completely ignores, and even goes against, the passage that says "our every breath is from the Lord," which means that we are NOT guaranteed our next breath, despite it being such a sure thing!
In other words, it's just more confirmation bias on your part.
Again, confirmation bias.
Two points:
1) Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but have not love, I have become sounding brass or a clanging cymbal. And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries and all knowledge, and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, but have not love, I am nothing. And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, but have not love, it profits me nothing.
The Greatest Gift - Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but have not love, I have become sounding brass or a clanging cymbal. And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries and all knowledge, and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains...
www.biblegateway.com
2) Do you think Peter could not have realized what he was about to do, and not done it? And if so, do you not think that Jesus would have been overjoyed by Peter not doing what Jesus said Peter would do? If the answer to the former is no, then at least, even though you're wrong, you're being consistent! But if the former is "yes" and the latter is "no, I don't think Jesus would have been happy Peter didn't do what Jesus said Peter would do," then you've got some MAJOR theological issues to work out between you and God. If BOTH are yes, then you have conceded the argument in its entirety!
There's no in-between!
Either God infallibly knows the future, or He does not!
Now you're just lying. You do not have infallible knowledge of anything.
You are human. You are fallible.
To claim otherwise is putting yourself on the level of God.
1 + 1 + 1 = 3
It does not equal "all knowledge."
God is far better at making predictions than we are, sure.
It doesn't mean those predictions always come to pass, and it CERTAINLY doesn't mean He cannot intervene to make those predictions come true, or to prevent them from coming to pass!
But that's entirely the point.
We DON'T have 100% certainty.
Those "specific circumstances" being possible are what prevent us from being "100% certain."
No idea what you're talking about.
No, you didn't.
You may think you have, but you have not.
So what? Am I unable to choose otherwise? If so, then that establishes my argument. If not, that establishes my argument.
Joke's on you, I have a call screener on my phone that answers it for me.
Why does there need to be any of those things?
What prevents me from doing something completely out of character?
Thanks for proving my point!
There is NO MIDDLE GROUND.
Either the future is 100% settled (infallibly foreknown), or it is not and men have the ability to choose otherwise.
Because you say so?
This has nothing to do with my argument.
Again, the argument is:
T = You answer the phone tomorrow at 9 am.
(1) Yesterday God infallibly believed T. [Supposition of infallible foreknowledge]
(2) If E occurred in the past, it is now-necessary that E occurred then. [Principle of the Necessity of the Past]
(3) It is now-necessary that yesterday God believed T. [1, 2]
(4) Necessarily, if yesterday God believed T, then T. [Definition of “infallibility”]
(5) If p is now-necessary, and necessarily (p → q), then q is now-necessary. [Transfer of Necessity Principle]
(6) So it is now-necessary that T. [3,4,5]
(7) If it is now-necessary that T, then you cannot do otherwise than answer the telephone tomorrow at 9 am. [Definition of “necessary”]
(8) Therefore, you cannot do otherwise than answer the telephone tomorrow at 9 am. [6, 7]
(9) If you cannot do otherwise when you do an act, you do not act freely. [Principle of Alternate Possibilities]
(10) Therefore, when you answer the telephone tomorrow at 9 am, you will not do it freely. [8, 9] |
False.
See Clete's response, above.
It only proves that IF the future is settled, then men are not free. It makes no claim to whether the future IS settled.