On the omniscience of God

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Define "Sola Scriptura".

I do not believe that it is possible for anyone to be a Catholic and believe in the actual doctrine of sola scriptura, as evidence by the entire rest of your post, which openly contradicts the doctrine more and more as the post progresses culminating with flatly contradicting the bible itself!

How is it possible for a working human mind to be this self-conflicted and not cause you to walk out into traffic?

And all I have to say is, Who is your bishop? Clete.
 

Lon

Well-known member
Is there any very clear omniscient passage?

Perhaps the Isaiah 46 passage is the clearest:
Isaiah 46:21-24 -
Present your case,” says the Lord.
“Bring forth your strong reasons,” says the King of Jacob. “Let them bring forth and show us what will happen; Let them show the former things, what they were, that we may consider them, And know the latter end of them; Or declare to us things to come. Show the things that are to come hereafter, That we may know that you are gods.

Peter says the actual words omniscience "Lord You know all things (panta gnosis)."

A biblical need for God to be Omniscient:

1) ALL things come from God. If posited anything exists outside of Him, the inevitable conclusion is that thing does not exist. While Open View will acknowledge this, there is limitation set, by them, upon what God 'can' know.
Consider:

Proverbs 2:6 For the Lord gives wisdom; from his mouth come knowledge and understanding.
-Drawn conclusion: There is no knowledge that doesn't come from God's infinite being.
Colossians 1:16,17 "Without Him, nothing (including all knowledge) exists, that exists. Open Theism will say the future doesn't exist but even for it to exist, it must proceed from God. If all knowledge of possibility comes 'from' God, it has to already exist in God by logical demands as well as a major problematic for Open Theists: It has to come from the Only Source of Knowledge of any kind: God Himself. That is why A) we believe scripture indicates clearly God is omniscient and B) that it has to mean God already knows it, there is no other place any knew knowledge 'can' come from according to Proverbs 2:6, but what emanates 'from' God, the only eternal being. It literally has no other place to exist. Therefore God is the only author of all existence and any 'new song' logically has no place to come from other than God Himself.

A better concept: We tend to limit God by finite. A 'new song' is thought outside of God's eternality. Nothing can exist outside of God's infinite being.

Accusation: "You are infected by Greeks!"
All truth, if it is true, is God's truth. Any truth comes from nowhere else, scripture explains clearly.

Sufficiency of this argument: While it may not convince, omniscience and eternality are the better cornerstone and grasp of a God Who has never had a beginning and is the sole reason anything exists at all. The Open View model has God creating outside of Himself, for relational reasons, a world and things that can exist outside of His existence from which all emanates, creating a superficial barrier to 'without Him, nothing exists that exists.' It denies the clear teaching of Colossians 1:16-20 which not only says that all things come 'from' His being, but that they are presently sustained by Him, thus Luke 12:7 that says all your hairs are numbered, isn't about Him counting, but that they are known explicitly because they exist 'because' of God. Why it boggles the mind, is likely because one does not entertain the idea that God is already infinite. He is the Author of existence as we know it in our limitation. In frankness, any limitation we intimate comes from a finite mind, not in keeping with an infinite God.
 
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Lon

Well-known member
@Lon
Regarding Isaiah 40-48... (particularly 41:21-24, which is what you were trying to reference...) :

He touches all around Isaiah but for these specific verses, that are again juxtaposition of a difference between God and man specifically. I might argue a few of his other observations, didn't see anything in particular, but nothing really in the way of these specific scriptures Credo posted. -Lon
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Define "Sola Scriptura".

Every word of the Scripture is the literal word of God and all the words together is the Word of God, capital W. Everything in the Bible is taken to be what's I think commonly called foundational in the literature, meaning basically it's taken as evident and fundamental, a priori knowledge, this is ofc taken on faith, it's inherent to the definition of Sola Scriptura, that the whole Scripture is infallible (which entails inerrant).

So we are permitted all other a priori knowledge, just like everybody else, we just also have the Bible in the a priori knowledge category as well, because it's the literal Word of God, so it belongs there.

Sola Scriptura is basically this initial starting condition. So you have Luther's two-ingredient formula, Scripture and reason. Reason is just all a priori knowledge, including logic and math and stuff like that. Even words and their definitions are a priori knowledge, again, foundational.

Up means up and not down is as foundational as 2+2=4, and for Sola Scriptura, as In the beginning God.

I do not believe that it is possible for anyone to be a Catholic and believe in the actual doctrine of sola scriptura

Most everybody agrees with you. On both sides. And I'm saying something different than most vanilla Roman Catholic simpliciter apologists are saying, they will say Sola Scriptura is self-defeating, self-contradictory, that's not my stance. My stance is that under Sola Scriptura, its starting conditions, are a trail of breadcrumbs, and the trail leads to believing in that it's Apostolicity that is foundational, which INCLUDES the whole Scripture, and the belief in the infallibility of every single word in the whole entire Bible, but it entails that anything Apostolic, that doesn't happen to have been captured in Scripture, is still just as infallibly God's Word as what IS in the Scripture.

So Sola Scriptura is incomplete, but contains within it the seed of its own germination, sprouting, maturation, and fruition, which is vanilla Roman Catholicism simpliciter.

, as evidence by the entire rest of your post, which openly contradicts the doctrine more and more as the post progresses culminating with flatly contradicting the bible itself!

It is 100% consistent with the Bible to heed your bishop. And certainly to know his name.

How is it possible for a working human mind to be this self-conflicted and not cause you to walk out into traffic?

I've made no commitment to TOL, I just like it. I like the challenge, it's way different energy from times past, especially the early days (I'm in my 27th year since I first started here). The early TOL was more like how nee_Twitter is today. Tons and tons of posts flying around, tons of long posts, and everybody would jump on anything you dared post, that was way different energy. Nowadays we're highly auto-curated. Not many of us like this, and I even caught flak for intimating that another user here was maybe just a little fragile for mature TOL. Maybe go over to nee_Twitter, maybe that's more your speed.

This is in contrast to our understanding of God's providence. Being vanilla Roman Catholic simpliciter is like being married, in that you've made a public commitment. You trust that in honoring your promise, that it will work for you in the end, and that's part of why you're keeping your vow. It's just part of faith, and it always has been, the idea that your faith does NOT include this commitment, really doesn't appear in history in any significant number until the Reformation. And then not even—there was still a commitment to those fledgling Protestant ecclesial traditions, but soon Sola Scriptura purified Protestant theology of anything unfounded by and unfound in Scripture, at least things not hitting you over the head.

So any kind of commitment to your Protestant tradition fell by the wayside eventually, and drifting Protestant Christians became unconnected in any objective way to any organization or putative "church". Once these people realized their similar situations, they all gathered together to form Evangelicalism. The tradition for people with commitment issues. You don't need to commit to Evangelicalism, you're just a member of the Evangelical assembly if you say so, it's like, What is a Woman? A woman is someone who identifies as a woman, and it's the same for Evangelicals, because there's no public commitment, it's like a cohabitating couple, instead of a married couple.

And the married couple is really what the earliest Church traditions all were.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
As an addition, entertain you aren't honest with yourself. You often contradict, may inadvertently lie to yourself, even. Something to ponder and forgive the intimacy of such a post, but it is evident to several on TOL.

There's nothing to forgive.

Try to let your yes be yes. It may (likely) play into your theology on point, and we need to follow God in Truth and Spirit.

You're not objectively seeking the truth, you're stopping short. You're getting to a Here and No Further point, and you're stopping.

I'm being charitable, this isn't an insult or meant to be offensive, it's an observation.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Silly nonsense. Calvinism is Reformed Augustinian theology. Martin Luther was an Augustinian monk and there's not a dime's worth of difference between what Luther taught and what Calvin codified in his "Institutes" and which became what we call "Calvinism".

These men were not arbitrary in their rejection [of] various Catholic doctrines. If anyone was arbitrary about what he accepted or rejected it was Augustine! He twisted and bent and even outright rejected any doctrine he desired so as to conform it to the Neo-Platonism that he so adored.

So like I said, I'm Augustian in as much as Augustine was Roman Catholic (which he was), and Clavinism is cafeteria Augustianism, because Clavinists just take what they like from Augustine and leave all the rest.

They mainly like his polemics against Pelagius, and pay no mind to his belief in the primacy of the Pope, neither his position on Donatism, which is the heresy that through committing sins, bishops can corrupt the office of a bishop.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Nonsense. There is no such thing as "the elect" in the way you are meaning it here. If it did exist, God would be unjust. If God is unjust then He doesn't even actually exist and this is all academic.

I already know you're not a Clavinist, neither am I. Total Depravity plus Unconditional Election means Reprobation, it's 2+2=4, but you'll still find some Clavinists who resist the necessary entailment of their theology.

Psalm 41:9 "Even my own familiar friend in whom I trusted, who ate my bread, has lifted up his heel against me."

Psalm 55:12-14 "For it is not an enemy who reproaches me; then I could bear it. Nor is it one who hates me who has exalted himself against me; then I could hide from him. But it was you, a man my equal, my companion and my acquaintance. We took sweet counsel together, and walked to the house of God in the throng."

Zechariah 11:12-13 "Then I said to them, 'If it is agreeable to you, give me my wages; and if not, refrain.' So they weighed out for my wages thirty pieces of silver. And the LORD said to me, 'Throw it to the potter'—that princely price they set on me. So I took the thirty pieces of silver and threw them into the house of the LORD for the potter."

Psalm 109:6-8 "Set a wicked man over him, and let an accuser stand at his right hand. When he is judged, let him be found guilty, and let his prayer become sin. Let his days be few, and let another take his office."

If Judas never existed or if Judas had repented, which of those passages would be considered prophesies?

NONE OF THEM!

They'd just be bible verses where someone was saying something pertinent to what was going on at the time.

Now, God very obviously was planning to have someone close to Him who would betray Him and so some or perhaps all of the happenings and statements in the Old Testament were made with that goal in view but you couldn't prove that to be a fact and it doesn't need to be a fact. God could just as easily chosen to have certain passages paralleled as things developed. He could have, for example, put the figure of "thirty pieces of silver" in the mind's of the Sanhedrin just as the transaction was happening just to add one more passage that He was "fulfilling" (paralleling).

Nobody is denying this.

No. There would not have been any absolute requirement for there to have been some other guy. If there hadn't been a betrayer then Jesus could have just gone into town on His own volition and been taken by these same people.


Genesis 50:20 But as for you, you meant evil against me; but God meant it for good, in order to bring it about as it is this day, to save many people alive.

I don't understand the question.

You are surely conflating two (or more) unrelated issues.

The key word is "meant", it means that there's a plan or an intent in play. God meant it for good. But it was evil. iow God meant evil for good.

I (and other Open Theists) do not deny that God not only permits certain things to happen but that He also guides history and orchestrates certain events for various reasons. This is not at all what the doctrines of Calvinism (or Augustinian Catholicism) is talking about when they talk about God's "permissive will".

JP2's Catechism of the Catholic Church just teaches God's providence, permissive will is Clavinism.

The term "permissive will" presupposes what Calvinists accept as it's reciprocal, which is God's "perfect will". The problem is that it is a contradiction.
How, you ask...

Well, because God's "perfect will", the Augustinian's teach, is what God wants and His "permissive will" is absolutely every single other event that happens. The problem is that the same Augustinians also teach that every single thing that happens only does so because God predestined it to happen.

Why did He predestine it? For His glory, they say! Which is perfect, they also say!

In other words, they teach that what God has predestined is optimally good; it is the "highest rule of perfection" as Calvin put it and so even by Calvinism's own standard, there is no such thing as God's "permissive will" because all of it, every single event that happens is God's "perfect will"! When you have two categories and every single thing in one category fits into the other, then one (or both) of the categories isn't real.

You're the only one trying to contrast "perfect will" with "permissive will", you even say yourself you admit, that God permits "certain things to happen". That's just the definition of permissive will. Are you saying that when He permits things, it's AGAINST His will? ofc you're not saying that. So you believe in His permissive will, just based on your own words. Otherwise the word "permit" doesn't mean anything, and it just means God is passive, because you said God "permits certain things to happen". If He can't stop it from happening, that's not permission.

So maybe you just didn't mean to use the word "permit", or, maybe you have a surprising definition for the word, that really means, God couldn't stop it from happening.

So, you cannot cling to a premise and then pretend like it's a problem when you conjure up a scenario where that premise would be false. This is specifically what it means to "beg the question". You cannot have it both ways.

In other words, your question starts with the premise of free will

No it doesn't. It starts with the premise that for every 10 thousand people who die, one of them goes to Hell, and everybody else doesn't. It means that the only people who don't go to Heaven are basically violent criminals in our societies. One out of every 10 thousand of us.

Under this scenario, which is hypothetical, granted, what would we expect God to do? Would we expect God to arrange to have those people put to death? So is He being unjust, if they're not put to death? If violent criminals are allowed to live, and commit violent crime against innocent victims, is God somehow responsible for it, because He didn't arrange to have these people put to death, before they could hurt anybody?

and then objects based on God either controlling or foreseeing (i.e. infallibly) everything that happens.

As for whether it is just for God to manipulate His enemies, I don't even understand the question. That is to say that I don't understand what level of depravity a mind must be in for the question to be asked. God works for, with, along side of, around, against, and in spite of all kinds of various people, whether they be human, angelic, demonic or whatever, in order to accomplish His goals.

That's just Calvinism right here.

The extent to which your actions are your own is the extent to which you will be held responsible for them by God.

But what about God's actions? is the point. God meant evil for good, that's literally right from Genesis 50:20 verbatim. Close enough.

How is that even a little bit hard to wrap your mind around? It absolutely should be 100% intuitive to the point of literally being childishly simple. If it is not, it indicates that you've made a very serious error.


Well, it doesn't have to cohere with your doctrine and that's were the real problem lies. You do not really care what the bible says, you care about what your church says. If your church says something that contradicts the bible, it is always the doctrine that wins the day - always - and what you're asked to do is not to figure out how they cohere but just the opposite. You're asked to turn off your mind and accept as truth what you're told to accept as truth whether it makes any sense or not. This is your true kinship with Calvinism. This is the real DNA which you both share.

One example where my theology conflicts with Scripture?

And if that's the standard, then every single one of you stands condemned, and you are all PRETENDING. To care about the truth, to care about Sola Scriptura, to care what God's will is for your life. You're all pretending, because you know your theology doesn't comport with all the Scripture, every single one of you have passages which are surprising under your theology. Like why are they there? If your theology is true, then why are these passages in the Bible? They're surprising. It doesn't entail you're wrong, so long as you've got a good explanation, that overcomes the low initial plausibility.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Every word of the Scripture is the literal word of God and all the words together is the Word of God, capital W. Everything in the Bible is taken to be what's I think commonly called foundational in the literature, meaning basically it's taken as evident and fundamental, a priori knowledge, this is ofc taken on faith, it's inherent to the definition of Sola Scriptura, that the whole Scripture is infallible (which entails inerrant).

So we are permitted all other a priori knowledge, just like everybody else, we just also have the Bible in the a priori knowledge category as well, because it's the literal Word of God, so it belongs there.

Sola Scriptura is basically this initial starting condition. So you have Luther's two-ingredient formula, Scripture and reason. Reason is just all a priori knowledge, including logic and math and stuff like that. Even words and their definitions are a priori knowledge, again, foundational.

Up means up and not down is as foundational as 2+2=4, and for Sola Scriptura, as In the beginning God.
So it is precisely as I suspected. You DO NOT actually believe anything close to what the actual doctrine that the entire world knows as "sola scriptura" actually teaches but rather your own made up out of whole clothe version of it.

Sola Scriptura is the doctrine which says the Bible alone is the ultimate and sufficient authority for Christian faith and practice, rejecting any additional sources of authority (such as tradition or church teachings) as equal to Scripture.

Most everybody agrees with you. On both sides. And I'm saying something different than most vanilla Roman Catholic simpliciter apologists are saying, they will say Sola Scriptura is self-defeating, self-contradictory, that's not my stance. My stance is that under Sola Scriptura, its starting conditions, are a trail of breadcrumbs, and the trail leads to believing in that it's Apostolicity that is foundational, which INCLUDES the whole Scripture, and the belief in the infallibility of every single word in the whole entire Bible, but it entails that anything Apostolic, that doesn't happen to have been captured in Scripture, is still just as infallibly God's Word as what IS in the Scripture.

So Sola Scriptura is incomplete, but contains within it the seed of its own germination, sprouting, maturation, and fruition, which is vanilla Roman Catholicism simpliciter.
I'm sorry but this is literally too stupid to even warrant me responding to directly.

Everyone, just read the above and that alone is it's own best refutation.

It is 100% consistent with the Bible to heed your bishop. And certainly to know his name.
Laughably idiotic. You're talking yourself right out of being a Christian at all, Idolater.

I've made no commitment to TOL, I just like it. I like the challenge, it's way different energy from times past, especially the early days (I'm in my 27th year since I first started here). The early TOL was more like how nee_Twitter is today. Tons and tons of posts flying around, tons of long posts, and everybody would jump on anything you dared post, that was way different energy. Nowadays we're highly auto-curated. Not many of us like this, and I even caught flak for intimating that another user here was maybe just a little fragile for mature TOL. Maybe go over to nee_Twitter, maybe that's more your speed.

This is in contrast to our understanding of God's providence. Being vanilla Roman Catholic simpliciter is like being married, in that you've made a public commitment. You trust that in honoring your promise, that it will work for you in the end, and that's part of why you're keeping your vow. It's just part of faith, and it always has been, the idea that your faith does NOT include this commitment, really doesn't appear in history in any significant number until the Reformation. And then not even—there was still a commitment to those fledgling Protestant ecclesial traditions, but soon Sola Scriptura purified Protestant theology of anything unfounded by and unfound in Scripture, at least things not hitting you over the head.

So any kind of commitment to your Protestant tradition fell by the wayside eventually, and drifting Protestant Christians became unconnected in any objective way to any organization or putative "church". Once these people realized their similar situations, they all gathered together to form Evangelicalism. The tradition for people with commitment issues. You don't need to commit to Evangelicalism, you're just a member of the Evangelical assembly if you say so, it's like, What is a Woman? A woman is someone who identifies as a woman, and it's the same for Evangelicals, because there's no public commitment, it's like a cohabitating couple, instead of a married couple.

And the married couple is really what the earliest Church traditions all were.
I couldn't really follow this rambling mess and I really couldn't care less about why you're here. Your highest value is in being a demonstration of the degree to which one must shut down their cognitive faculty in order to buy into three syllables of the Catholic system. It's flagrant lunacy from the word go.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
So like I said, I'm Augustian in as much as Augustine was Roman Catholic (which he was), and Clavinism is cafeteria Augustianism, because Clavinists just take what they like from Augustine and leave all the rest.
Repeat yourself all you like. Saying it doesn't make it so.

They mainly like his polemics against Pelagius, and pay no mind to his belief in the primacy of the Pope, neither his position on Donatism, which is the heresy that through committing sins, bishops can corrupt the office of a bishop.
Making stuff up as we go now, is that it?

The history of Luther's rejection of certain Catholic doctrines is VERY well documented. We are quite certain about the content of Martin Luther's 95 Theses posted on the door of the Castle Church at Wittenberg in 1517. There is no surviving original document, but the Theses were quickly translated from Latin into German and widely distributed throughout Europe, making it impossible to question their general content. Early printed copies and eyewitness accounts help establish a high degree of confidence in the text's accuracy. While some minor variations might exist in early copies, the core message remains consistent across historical sources.

The following is from Chat GPT in direct response to your claims....

The claims made have several inaccuracies in terms of historical context and theological nuances. Here's a breakdown:​
Luther's Polemics Against Pelagius: Luther did indeed argue against Pelagianism, particularly in his emphasis on the total depravity of humanity and the necessity of divine grace for salvation. However, Calvinists typically emphasize aspects of Luther's theology related to the sovereignty of God and predestination more than his anti-Pelagian polemics. While they would likely appreciate Luther's stance against Pelagius, it's not the defining feature of his influence on Reformed thought.​
Luther's Belief in the Primacy of the Pope: Luther initially did uphold the Pope's authority within the Church, but he eventually rejected it during the Reformation. His famous break with the Catholic Church over doctrinal issues, such as justification by faith alone and the authority of Scripture, was not compatible with papal primacy. In fact, the rejection of papal authority became central to his theological position, especially after the posting of the 95 Theses.​
Luther's Position on Donatism: Donatism was a controversy in the early Church concerning the validity of sacraments administered by bishops or priests who had lapsed in their faith. Luther, like Augustine, argued that the personal holiness of the minister does not affect the validity of the sacraments. The claim that Luther believed "bishops can corrupt the office of a bishop" through sin is misleading. While Luther did have criticisms of the clergy, he did not hold to the Donatist position that the sinfulness of the minister necessarily invalidates the office.​
In summary, the claim oversimplifies and misrepresents Luther's views, particularly in relation to his stance on papal authority and his position on the Donatist controversy. Reformed traditions typically focus more on Luther's critiques of Catholic practices and doctrines, rather than these specific elements mentioned in the claim.​
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I already know you're not a Clavinist, neither am I. Total Depravity plus Unconditional Election means Reprobation, it's 2+2=4, but you'll still find some Clavinists who resist the necessary entailment of their theology.
Unresponsive. Pay attention. Stop wasting my time.

Nobody is denying this.
Yes they are.

The key word is "meant", it means that there's a plan or an intent in play. God meant it for good. But it was evil. iow God meant evil for good.
Blasphemy.

That's the last straw. I'm not wasting any more time with your stupidity.
 
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