MARK 1:4 JOHN'S BAPTISM
- Thread starter DougE
- Start date
But but but the order to be baptized in that name was dispensed to only them... there...and at that time...just because the name is an English one doesn’t make it for us...hope they understood why it had to be an English name...
We are raptured from all this ”follow me...my example...love as I loved you”...
csuguy
Well-known member
Romans 15:15-16 I have written very boldly to you on some points so as to remind you again, because of the grace that was given me [f]from God, 16 to be a minister of Christ Jesus to the Gentiles, ministering as a priest the gospel of God, so that my offering of the Gentiles may become acceptable, sanctified by the Holy Spirit.
Right Divider
Body part
In which perverted "translation" did you find that jewel?
Rom 15:16 KJV That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost.
P.S. Stay away from that Westcott and Hort crap and you'll be better off.
P.P.S. So you think that ONE verse proves that the body of Christ has a "priesthood"? And you have the nerve to call others "cherry-pickers". :doh:
Hello
Only the believing remnant of Israel is called Priests of God (Revelation 5:10 Exodus 19:6 Isaiah 61:6 1 Peter 2:9).
1 Peter is written to believers, not the jewish remnant.
Right Divider
Body part
1 Peter was written to the believing remnant of Israel. Peter was writing to those scattered abroad, just like James.
1Pe 1:1 KJV Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
Jas 1:1 KJV James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
Why does Peter call them "strangers"? It's because they were Israelite's scattered abroad into gentile lands (some of which are named there).
Peter continues to quote scripture about THEM and to THEM.
1Pe 2:9-12 KJV But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light: (10) Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy. (11) Dearly beloved, I beseech you as strangers and pilgrims, abstain from fleshly lusts, which war against the soul; (12) Having your conversation honest among the Gentiles: that, whereas they speak against you as evildoers, they may by your good works, which they shall behold, glorify God in the day of visitation.
Note the clear contrast between YOUR and THE GENTILES. The body of Christ is NOT a "nation", but Israel certainly is.
To Whom Was 1 Peter Written?
January 23, 2009Brent Kercheville
As I prepare for an upcoming sermon series on 1 Peter I have been studying who the recipients of Peter’s first letter were. The answer is not as easy as one would think. Yet understanding the recipients colors how one considers the arguments in the text. Most scholars think that the Dispersion (Diaspora) mentioned in 1 Peter 1:1 refers to Gentile Christians who are living as aliens in this world. Essentially, the Diaspora is a symbolic reference of Gentile Christians who are separated from God while on the earth, living as strangers until they can be united with God. I can see the reason for this line of argument, particularly from 1 Peter 1:14, 18 which sounds like Gentile language.
But there are a number of strong reasons to consider that the recipients of Peter’s first letter were Jewish Christians.
(1) The word “Diaspora” is used only two other times in the New Testament (John 7:35; James 1:1) and in those cases refers to literal Jews and Jewish Christians.
(2) The Baker Exegetical Commentary states that “Diaspora” was a technical term only found in Jewish literature of the Hellenistic period referring to the Jewish population living outside of Palestine after the Babylonian exile. The weight of this argument becomes greater when we note that Peter ends the letter by speaking about “She who is in Babylon….”
(3) Peter was an apostle to the Jews (Galatians 2). While this does not mean that Peter could not teach Gentiles, we should not forget that Paul primarily went to the Gentiles while Peter primarily went to the Jews.
(4) There are at least 18 quotations to the Hebrew scriptures in 1 Peter. This is a significant portion of the letter considering the smaller size of Peter’s first letter. This is the weightiest argument for me in favor of Jewish Christians. It would not make much sense to argue from the Hebrew scriptures to people who were not familiar with the Hebrew scriptures like the Gentiles.
I am still researching for other arguments, but right now the weight of the evidence goes for Jewish Christians as the intended audience of 1 Peter, not Gentile Christians. We must remember that this letter was not written to churches, but to individual Christians in these regions in Asia Minor. Therefore, copping out with the letter being written to “a mixture of Jewish and Gentile Christians” will not work.
Hello
I just saw this post.
If they are "Jewish Christians" that would mean they are the body of Christ. The body has a position in the heavenly places (Ephesians 2:6) not in the kingdom. The body is not referred to as a holy nation or kings and priests.