ECT MAD Preterism

[Interplanner]

I'm not promoting this view, but the thought occurs to me that this would be consistent with dispensational distinction between Israel and the church...

Doesn't dispensationalism generally (and MADism more specifically) lend itself to Preterist eschatology? That is, if there is a gospel for the Jew and another for the Gentile - if some scriptures were not written for the Gentile as some were not written for the Jew - if this is so, why not a different "coming" for the Jew than for the church? So when Jesus gives warnings in Matthew 24 (just as an example), the warnings up to verse 28 could easily be to the Jews alone (arguably all fulfilled in and by 70AD). The rest of the chapter (it could be argued) may not be unique to the Jews (though the MAD approach would, I think, lend itself to the "elect" being the Jews only - certainly in verse 31).

Seen this way one may view the comings of the Lord as specific to a people. After all, the letters to the churches in Revelation had Jesus warning "...I will come to you..." separately to each.

The problem is that it is trying to make 2P2P work, which is not in the Bible. The episode with Israel only is over, but that is only because they thought the Law was a separate track of dealings; in Gal 3:17 you'll see that they replaced the earlier worldwide Promise of grace with their Law. When Jesus came and showed that the mission of God was the message of the Gospel to the nations, and got it started through the apostles, he wanted the Jews to realize that that was the objective and goal of dealing with Israel. They mostly did not. That resulted in the devastation of Jerusalem.

So God is not trying to get that going again because it never was the objective. The apostles also understood from Christ and Isaiah that the things and throne promised to David was actually about Christ; Acts 2:31 and the Isaiah quote in Acts 13. So there are several ways that the NT clears this up if we would believe it.