nikolai_42
Well-known member
I'm not promoting this view, but the thought occurs to me that this would be consistent with dispensational distinction between Israel and the church...
Doesn't dispensationalism generally (and MADism more specifically) lend itself to Preterist eschatology? That is, if there is a gospel for the Jew and another for the Gentile - if some scriptures were not written for the Gentile as some were not written for the Jew - if this is so, why not a different "coming" for the Jew than for the church? So when Jesus gives warnings in Matthew 24 (just as an example), the warnings up to verse 28 could easily be to the Jews alone (arguably all fulfilled in and by 70AD). The rest of the chapter (it could be argued) may not be unique to the Jews (though the MAD approach would, I think, lend itself to the "elect" being the Jews only - certainly in verse 31).
Seen this way one may view the comings of the Lord as specific to a people. After all, the letters to the churches in Revelation had Jesus warning "...I will come to you..." separately to each.
Doesn't dispensationalism generally (and MADism more specifically) lend itself to Preterist eschatology? That is, if there is a gospel for the Jew and another for the Gentile - if some scriptures were not written for the Gentile as some were not written for the Jew - if this is so, why not a different "coming" for the Jew than for the church? So when Jesus gives warnings in Matthew 24 (just as an example), the warnings up to verse 28 could easily be to the Jews alone (arguably all fulfilled in and by 70AD). The rest of the chapter (it could be argued) may not be unique to the Jews (though the MAD approach would, I think, lend itself to the "elect" being the Jews only - certainly in verse 31).
Seen this way one may view the comings of the Lord as specific to a people. After all, the letters to the churches in Revelation had Jesus warning "...I will come to you..." separately to each.