The woman was being accused of adultery only.But in Luke 7 and elsewhere, the women were known to have been in many relationships, and the whole point is the forgiveness, not the procedure about the sin of adultery.
Show in scripture where it says that Jesus forgave her of her sins.
Why do you use words that scripture does not?
The woman was set free by Christ, and she was no longer condemned. I know you hate it, but accept it.
Use the other sinful woman in Luke 7 as the example.
Christ Jesus said the following to her:
(Luke 7:48) Therefore, I tell you, her many sins have been forgiven...
37 A woman in that town who lived a sinful life learned that Jesus was eating at the Pharisee’s house, so she came there with an alabaster jar of perfume. 38 As she stood behind him at his feet weeping, she began to wet his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them and poured perfume on them. . .
50 Jesus said to the woman, “Your faith has saved you; go in peace.”
The problem doesn't seem to be that there were no witnesses. It says she was caught in the act and He did not dispute that.
The problem, again, is that they did not also bring the man she was caught with (since "in the act" would mean exactly that).
They were, in a very real sense, bearing false witness against her by not bringing the man who by Law bore equal guilt.
Lots of speculation on what He wrote in the dirt. My guess is, He simply wrote Lev 20:10 and emphasized the references to the adulterous man they failed to produce, and possibly also Exo 20:16. There was no way they could spin His reply that would make Him appear guilty of anything, so they slunk away.
He did not tell that woman "Go and sin no more," He pronounced her forgiven because of her faith.
IP and Andy are lawless.
Faith in what?
That's the whole point of the thread!
You have been brainwashed into believing no one received grace and forgiveness before Paul, and that no one received the wrath of God after Paul.
That's why you deny the grace and forgivness given to people by Jesus Himself before Paul, and why you deny the wrath of God upon the Jews in 70AD after Paul.
You're MAD is a mess.
Show where she was repentant and that He told her she was forgiven, and we'll accept it.
No, silly.So you think she want away condemned as an adulteress under the law,
She saw and acknowledged Who and What He was. The adulteress, as far as is recorded, did not.
How hard is that for you to understand?
What's the alternative?
The law condemned the woman as an adulteress, but Jesus didn't condemn her?
This shows a conflict of attitudes between the law and Jesus, when from your perspective they're supposed to be in agreement.
If she's an adulteress condemned under the law, what were her options if she was repentant?
According to you, there were no options. She was doomed.
Trying to do away with the law in this instance is ludicrous.
The whole ordeal was concerning the law.
COULDN'T condemn her. Without the man present, He would have violated His own Law by condemning her.
No it doesn't.
The woman may have believed later. Maybe she didn't. We can't know.
But as far as what the Record DOES say, she appears to have gone away in unbelief. Relieved that she wasn't stoned, sure, and maybe convicted...but no indication she repented, so no indication that He forgave her.
Sorry you don't like that that's what it says, but that's what it says.
No, silly.
Per the law, one is not condemned unless proven guilty per the law.
They were not following the law as instructed for an adultery accusation.
Trying to do away with the law in this instance is ludicrous.
The whole ordeal was concerning the law.
Because there is no forgiveness for the adulteress under the law. So what was the basis for Jesus to forgive her?
Does Jesus say 'go now and stop sinning' to people he has not forgiven?