robycop3
Member
godrulz said:Do you have an internet source for the KJV preface?
I agree with your bottom line conclusion. Well done and balanced!
Here ya go!
http://m2.aol.com/avbibletab/pre/
godrulz said:Do you have an internet source for the KJV preface?
I agree with your bottom line conclusion. Well done and balanced!
AVBunyan said:Now with that let’s talk about this “doctrine” of “Only the Originals are Inspired or the True Word of God”
1. Again, where in any Bible does it say “only the originals” are inspired? Who invented this doctrine and “made it a fundamental of the faith”? Some of you folks are really hung up on this “original” issue. Do you believe that if you had the “originals” in your hands that you would get 110 volts of shock! Do you believe that if you had the real “originals” in your pulpit to preach from that your “baptism” count would go up?!?!? As God as my witness if I had the “originals” in my possession I would lock them up in a safe and preach out of a King James Bible and not bat and eye! Some of you folks would put them in a display case and bow down before them and then charge admission to finance your youth’s softball trip to Six Flags Over Texas!
There is no verse in any Bible that say “only the originals are inspired” – someone dreamed that one up – sounds good – just not scriptural.
Now this next part some of you will scoff at – some will say that is old stuff and some of you might say, “That makes sense to me!”
2. In Tim. 3:16 it says: All scripture is given by inspiration…” If it is scripture it has to be inspired according to II Tim. 3:16. Don’t call what you have in your hands “scripture” unless you believe it to be inspired. The “Bible” says that if you want to call what you have “the scriptures” then it has to be inspired. If it is not inspired then it is not scripture.
3. Look at II Tim. 3:15 – Timothy had the scriptures – according to vs. 16 there were inspired. Did Timothy have the originals? Of course not but what he had was inspired for the next verse says that the all scripture is inspired. Timothy had a copy of the scriptures and according to vs. 16 they were inspired and they were not the originals!
The “scriptures” just told us that something other than the originals could be inspired.
4. Can the AV1611 be inspired? Why not? Who or what says they couldn’t be – II Tim. 3:15,16 says more than just the originals can be scripture and thus be inspired.
Were the KJV translators inspired men? No.
Could what they have put down been inspired? Why not?
I do not believe they were inspired but what God had them put down was.
Don’t you believe God runs things? Don’t you believe that God works all things after the counsel of his own will – Eph. 1:11? Don’t you believe God can control have his hands upon a 1611 Bible committee? You mean you don’t take the providential approach to history? Do you mean that God just let’s man run things on his own? Do you mean that you are putting your faith or lack of faith in the KJV translators, which were mere men?
THE 1611 TRANSLATORS WERE HOLY SCHOLARS AND HOLY MEN BUT MY FAITH IS IN THE GOD WHO CONTROLLED AND DIRECTED THE AFFAIRS OF THOSE MEN! No wonder why you folks keep using the translators as an excuse for faulty translating – your faith is in men and not the Providential hand of an all-powerful, all seeing, all-directing God!
We desire true saints to know that hey have the inspired word of God in their hand so they can be equipped to do the work of the ministry.
Some of us just happen to believe that we have the scriptures in our hands. Many of you don’t have the scriptures and by your own beliefs admit that.
1 Th 2:13 For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe.
If you don’t’ believe what you have in your hands is the word of God it can’t work effectually in you. And guess what folks – our work, as a whole, is not very effectual. Part of the reason is most saints today don’t have the scriptures and according to Heb. 4:12 there is where the power comes from today. Yes, the Holy Spirit does the work but the Spirit utilizes the words of God down here.
God bless
Johnthebaptist said:The KJV Only group cannot accept the critical text or earlier manuscripts because they go against the KJV position.
The earlier manuscripts expose the variations from the KJV.
Which show it is not inerrant.
So when they say show me the proof for the errors in the KJV they mean in the Textus Receptus because they reject the earlier text.
robycop3 said:Sorry, AV Bunyan, you overlook a FACT that causes the whole KJVO myth to fail...LACK OF SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT! The KJVO simply CANNOT get around that basic, cardinal FACT! Your myth is simply NOT SUPPORTED AT ALL BY SCRIPTURE, even from the KJV itself.
Nor can the KJVO prove any exclusive influence from God only for the KJV, either.
KJVO is an empty, dead myth, held by those who won't face the TRUTH, and are AFRAID to admitthat all they have is PERSONAL PREFERENCE.
Just face it, KJVOs...Take away your PERSONAL PREFERENCE, and whaddya have left for a valid reason to be KJVO? NOTHING! There's simply NOT ONE LEGITIMATE REASON to be KJVO besides personal preference. (Or for that matter, in any other one-versionism false doctrine, either.)
I hope EVERY professing One-Versionist takes time to examine the REASONS for his/her belief, to see how TRUE any of'em are.
Huldrych said:...regarding Biblical preservation, which plays a major role in how you, and other Onlyists, formulate your declaration that the KJV is the only "inerrant, inspired, and complete" Bible.
And for that, I refer to you again to what you said in Post #194:
To which I respond: Have you examined Old Latin Bibles, Waldensian Bibles, and Reformation Bibles to see if God preserved His words the way a good many Onlyists say He did?
You mentioned knowing something about historical evidence on the matter. Has there to date been an older Bible found that lines up with the KJV 100%?
jth
And TROnlies do not accept them because 99% of the manuscripts in existance are NOT like Vaticanus nor Sinaiticus. The majority, an overwhelming SUPERmajority, that are in such awesome agreement, are manuscripts that support the Textus Receptus. Two manuscripts like Sinaiticus and Vaticanus, that cannot even agree with each other, that rather disagree with each other over 3000 times in the gospels alone, that have notes by scribes written in the margin to each other saying things like "you fool, why couldn't you leave the old reading alone?" cannot be useful for anything but to fuel a fire. In fact, when Tischendorf found the Sinaiticus manuscript, it was in a basket of material that was going to be used to do exactly that! We have 99% of all the manuscripts agreeing with each other, and confirming the Textus Receptus. Why should we accept the false witness of Vaticanus and Sinaiticus from the trash dumps of Egypt?
The "earlier" mss expose your attitude of contempt for God's word, seeing you would rather accept two MSS written by Arian heretics, two MSS that can't agree with each other hardly at all, and which show evidence of multiple hands, rather than the supermajorit of agreeing and pure manuscripts.
Your response is erroneous. No, what the earlier manuscripts prove is that there were glosses and minute additions to the original text. This is why the majority text agrees so much. Clearly you do not what to accept the truth of scholarship. So you have to lamblast modern scholarship. Clearly the KJV is not inerrant.
God Bless
John
..............................Johnthebaptist said:The KJV Only group cannot accept the critical text or earlier manuscripts because they go against the KJV position. The earlier manuscripts expose the variations from the KJV. Which show it is not inerrant. So when they say show me the proof for the errors in the KJV they mean in the Textus Receptus because they reject the earlier text. They have to reject modern scholarship and the papyri finds and manuscripts finds of the last hundred years because it shows the variations from the KJV. The falsely accuse all scholars that do not agre with them as being heretics or not being in the inerrancy of Scriptures. But really KJV Only by rejecting the orignial manuscripts as important and even claiming them to be myths denies the bases for inerrancy even of the KJV.
God Bless
John
Yes, I read it when the article was new. I particularly liked this part of the article, where you give your best shot about the perfect Bible before 1611:brandplucked said:Hi jth, as you probably know, I have written an article about the Old Latin version and the King James readings. Here is the site
http://www.geocities.com/brandplucked/OldLatin.html
A guess, Will. Not evidence, but conjecture. Hoping that the screen doors won't sink the submarine.It is my contention that a very good "educated guess" is that God had previously preserved His inerrant words among the Bible believing, persecuted group of Christians known as the Waldensians, who trace their history from around 120 A.D. to the time of the Reformation. Their Bible was known as the Italic version.
I got a kick out of the song and dance routine that follows the bold print above. "No big deal." Will, you are the one who claimed in Post #194 that "The only logical position of faith is to believe that if God is true to His words, then He must have preserved His words in a translation of some kind." The above evidence hardly supports that notion, at least as far as the Old Latin goes.Matthew 1:18--all 10 OL mss. lack "Jesus." Note: This is no big deal and hardly consistent with the rest of the N.T. since there are many times when the KJB and the OId Latin retain the name Jesus where the NIV, NASB omit it.
I only ask that Onlyists at least attempt to look at what is also available to us--no more, no less, and see how the results line up with their theories. They seem very reluctant to do so.It seems you Christians who do not believe that The Bible IS now the inerrant word of God demand something from us that you yourselves cannot provide.
To see if you have tested your own claims. It seems you really have not.You cannot trace back through history all the various readings, nor can you prove that any of them are genuine, so why do you demand that we do so?
Unfortunately, only one side has to prove themselves if their theories are really to be shown to have substance. They are the ones who make the claim about the existence of one perfect Bible throughout the ages. And they have the most to lose, and the most to gain, if this matter can be settled through evidence. While thousands indeed may have perished, thousands nonetheless have survived. Surely among those thousands is conclusive, maybe even definitive, proof of Onlyism's idea of perfect preservation. But in the past 50 years of Onlyism's existence among findamentalists, it seems nothing has really been done except echo the party line sired by a Seventh-Day Adventist.Undoubtedly thousands of manuscripts and Bibles have turned to dust or been destroyed in the last 2000 years. Neither side of this issue is able to prove beyond all doubt that any verse of Scripture is the true reading.
Faith, or presumption?I accept by faith that the Bible (KJB) is true and that God has preserved His words as He promised.
That's nice, and is most useful in helping defend Byzantine readings from Alexandrian. Unfortunately, what we're looking for is something that contains 100% of the KJV's text, since you and other Onlyists claim the KJV to be the present manifestation of the singular Bible God inspired. So far, zilch.Of the Old Latin bibles we have some knowledge of their readings, and ALL of the most hightly disputed readings in the King James Bible have been found in the relatively few Old Latin manuscripts that have survived.
Then your theory of preservation needs re-examination. After all, you did say that "I do believe the Bible itself teaches that God will preserve His pure words in a Book we can hold in our hands and believe every word." and as this applies to Bibles appearing before 1611, "He must have preserved His words in a translation of some kind."Can we prove that every single reading found in the KJB is genuine and trace them all to a single manuscript? No.
Because we have not made the extravagant claim that proto-KJVs existed before 1611. Our side of the case so far holds true.Nor can you do so with any other bible version on this earth. So, why is it you demand something from us that you yourselves cannot provide?
That is a rhetorical device known as the "loaded question." It assumes certain things, and demands an answer based on those assumptions. You assume the KJV is today's manifestation of the "inerrant, complete, infallible words of God," but cannot back up those assumptions based on your belief that God preserved His words in some form of the KJV throughout the ages.My question to you is this: Do you personally believe there is any Bible or any manuscript in any language on this earth today that is the inerrant, complete, infallible words of God? If so, what is it called?
Recently, we received a copy of the Holy Scriptures produced by the Jewish Publication Society. Of course, being the Jewish Bible, it did not contain the New Testament. In reviewing it, we discovered some interesting things. One shocking observation was discovering hundreds of footnotes as the following: Exact meaning of Hebrew uncertain, syntax of Hebrew unclear, the traditional reading madhebah is of unknown meaning, grammar of Hebrew unclear, meaning of first line uncertain, meaning of verse uncertain in part, force of Hebrew uncertain, construction of the verses uncertain, etc.. This was very shocking. Those of us coming from a conservative Christian background are usually told the Bible is inerrant. The Jews were the guardians of the Old Testament who were extremely diligent to preserve the text that not one jot or tittle was added or removed. Nearly all Christian Bibles rely on the Jewish Masoretic Hebrew text for translating the Old Testament into current languages. How was it possible for the translators to produce an "inerrant" Bible, when the "guardians of the so called 'inerrant' Hebrew text", did not know the meaning of many words and passages?
... the problem does not lie with the Jews lack of understanding of their own language, but with a false doctrine perpetuated by fundamentalists for many years. The Doctrine of Biblical Inerrancy. This doctrine has caused Christian leaders to have to outright lie to maintain their position. They have to take plain facts and hide them from their followers. Because they have locked themselves into the teaching that the King James Bible is "the inerrant" translation of the "so-called" original texts, they have locked themselves into a position where lying, distorting, and name calling are the only options left to maintain their ground. They say the 66 books of the present King James Bible are inerrant, but they don't tell you it lacks 14 entire books which were in the original King James of 1611. They don't tell you the King James Bible has been changed many times in the last 350 years and there have been thousands of corrections! They don't tell you the King James Bible was never authorized by anyone. They don't tell you the original KJV had a calendar of annual Holy days which all believers were to follow such as: Purification of the virgin Mary, annunciation of our Lady, Innocents day, etc.. They don't tell you the Greek text used by the King James translators produced by Erasmus, a Roman Catholic humanist monk, did not have manuscripts that contained all 27 books of the New Testament, so he borrowed out of the Latin Catholic Vulgate! No, they can't tell you these things because that would be the end of the lie which has kept them in business.
As we browsed through this excellent Old Testament translation, marvelling that these Jewish scholars were not ashamed to tell the world they were not perfect and therefore could not produce an inerrant translation, we noticed something else even more startling than the footnotes. We couldn't find the word "hell," even once! This was incredible! The very foundation of Christianity, the Old Testament, three quarters of the Bible, and the word "hell" could not be found. In searching dozens of English translations of the Old Testament, to our absolute amazement, the word "hell" could not be found in most of the leading translations. Abraham, Moses, David, and all the rest of the peoples of the Old Testament only knew one place where all people went, good or bad . . . Sheol, the grave, the place of the departed.
Huldrych said:Yes, I read it when the article was new. I particularly liked this part of the article, where you give your best shot about the perfect Bible before 1611:.....
Then, there are Reformation-Era Bibles. If you look at the same link I provided above, giving my analysis of the KJV's readings vs. those found in certain Reformation-Era Bibles (Luther 1534/45, Zürcher 1531, Tyndale 1530, de Reina 1569), you will find that none of them lined up with the KJV 100% in those 64 verses I looked at. The best any of them did was about 83%......
Unfortunately, only one side has to prove themselves if their theories are really to be shown to have substance. They are the ones who make the claim about the existence of one perfect Bible throughout the ages. .....
...............................
That's right ignore the 99% and make the disagreements the standard.Real smart.Go ahead and idolize your paganized scriptures,we will trust the words of the living God.
You do lots of work,but to what end?
No person has said that the various early English agree 100%.That includes the Alexandrians with their own.Now that is a kettle of fish.The Received Text is called the Received Text for a reason;it was received by all.It is the majority text,and that is what just drives all of the schollarship onlyites bannanas.They reject the vast majority of manuscripts that basically agree with each other throughout and throughout history,and side with garbage that has been ressurected as the NEW FINDS,and BETTER READINGS.When in fact they are the MOST corrupted pieces of Biblical literature around.
Why,the LXX [72] even numbers the 75 souls from Egypt all wrong.If you add up the totals,it comes to 83,in their own fake writings.See Will for info.
And that is just one out of dozens on each page.
You give this fake argument of the English not agreeing,when the versions that use the Texus receptus basically agree through out and can be considered the very same text.We are not talking of the versions that take from the Latin in spots.We are talking about the T.R.Plus the language was just being finalized into a stable form.Even in the 1611 edition,I have found diferent readings of the same word on the same page spelt[spelled]diferently.
Nevertheless the KJV has no proven errors,but any other version can be shown to have many,many proven errors,and basically on each page.
God is the one to prove he has preserved his word.It is only our job to believe it.This is internal Biblical evidence.I'm sure you can see that.To say that we have to prove the 100% agreement of KJV throughout history is something that you cabnnot prove yourself,so why do you ask him what you know to be untenable?You already KNOW thar the 'Originals ' are not extant.So guess what,logic says there are more that are not extant,inbetween then and now.Plus with the myriads of burnings,and just plain wearing out from use and age.Only copies are around.I think we all agree with that.
So,with the thousands of copies,including the thousands that showed up AFTER 1611,KJV still proves to be by the most honest count, the overwhelming best English edition of the Holy Scriptures ,and are for us,exactly that.
When you set a KJV and a Texus Receptus beside each other,they are basically word for word,as much as a translation will allow,infact,Engish is the best language to translate the Hebrew and the Koine Greek.
Then you set a NIV,or a NASB,or Holman down beside a Texus Receptus and all of a sudden,contradiction and errors and confusion is the norm.
The very same thing could be said for the same type of versions set down beside their favourite LXX [72]manuscripts,like Aleph and B.Confusion,errors unfaithfulness to the text,throughout.
Again the Holy Bible wins by a country mile.Yet the scholarship onlyites won't surrender their false standards and start exaggurating the miniscule discrepencies[ that are not
really]to bolster their trust in their own opinions of the versions they prefer.little gods.
logos_x said:...........................
Your source has lied to you,big time,Logos-x.Gary has falsified many arguments and showed his predudice in the extreme.Let me show you just a couple of typical examples,of which we hear of and get tired of correcting the Bible correctors.
Typical lie #1:...They say the 66 books of the present King James Bible are inerrant,but they don't tell you it lacks 14 entire books which were in thr original King James of 1611.
What a load of rubbish.That is an outright lie.Even the men here on this thread know that too.They know the answer to that one too.The KJB had the Apocraph set INBETWEEN the Old and New Testaments.NOT as part of the cannon of scriptures.Even the translators said so.Those writings were not in any way concidered any more than interesting reading,for the sake of Jewish History and writings of that time.[the 400 years.]To lie like that,when every single KJV Bible believer has answered that question more than once per month.
What really is the truth ,is that the other versions use the Hebrew and Greek Texts that USE these spurious sriptures as PART of the very cannon,themselves.In fact they have the books intermingled with the rest of the cannon,plus some even add on to other books such as Daniel,with Bel and the Dragon,Suzzane,etc.On top of that these same corrupted manuscripts included as PART of the cannon instead of Revelations,they add the Shepherd of Hermes,and the Epistle of Barnabus.Give those a read some day and see if they are better than Revelations.
Give me a break.
Typical Lie #2:...They don't tell you the King James Bible has been changed several times in the last 350 years and there have been thousands of corrections.
Big fake lie.We deal with that one on a regular basis.We know all the fake arguments.And this is one of the last ditch efforts to smear the KJV just because they can't deal with the truth.God shall send then Strong delusion,that they might believe a lie.
WHY?Because they loved not the truth.thy word is truth.
These supposed changes are nothing more than modernizing the font and regulating spellings.To the Alexandrian crowd,they use this as a ruse,to deceive the uninformed,so they can play god and say come and learn of me.I have the Hidden truths in the Hebrew and the Greek.
The reality is that out of the 3,000,000 letters in the Holy Bible,they only made 400 typo errors,which is quite remarkable considerting it was all done by hand.Plus any errors that were caught were quickly changed back to the original anyway.Plus there was the odd typo error during the years,but they ALWAYS brought it back to the original.Quite remarkable.Not like the modern versions that are GIVEN to change.
Even the NIV promised the readers that this time they would not be doing any changes to their text this time ,but shucks,after a few days they had to recant,and they introduced yet more changes,as usual.They seem to have a hard time with John 3:16 even.
Those thousands of corrections your source tells you are nothing more than spellings,and upgradings of letters,such as the ' s 'that looks like an ' f ' and bring the spellings of words to a standard.Because at that time, they still were spelling phonetically,that is why you get more than one spelling of the same word on even the same page.
Typical lie#3:...They don't tell you the Greek Text used by the King James translators produced by Erasmus,a Roman Catholic humanist monk,did not have manuscripts containing all 27 books of the New Testament,so he borrowed out of the Latin Catholic Vulgate.
What a piece of work your false accuser is.What a lie and distortion.We answer that one too,many times.Infact,for a credible acount you can read 'InAwe of Thy Word' by Gail Riplinger,and you will see the truth of the whole thing.
To start with ,the Catholics ban his works,because he exposes them to the core.
Erasmus wrote "Heresy does not arise among the laity who have the scriptures in the venacular,but among the doctors."[Bainton pg203]
Plus Erasmus made his own Latin,NOT the Latin of Jerome's.He followed the manuscripts that agreed throughout the known world.He had access to all the great libraries of the world and had one of the very best collections of Greek manuscripts available.Infact,his collection was greedily stollen and finally returned,because he complained that his ' Life's work has been stollen."
[Current catholic,Calvinistic and Liberal scholars sometimes pretend he was a friend of the Catholic religion.If their fables were true,why would the Catholic church itself and the scholars of the day consider him an enemy of that religion?]
He was an EX-monk bub.He attacked the lifestyle of the monks including the priests and theologians.
He wrote dozens of private letters of the Catholic hieararchyof his day,EXPOSING them of their vices.
Basically,Erasmus has been misrepresented by unsaved authors.
Erasmus wrote in Latin,and it can be interpreted diferent ways.
'agito'-to agitate,to celebrate,or to manage.
'liber'-licenteous,or unbiased
'paganus'-a heathen ,an un-learned ,or rustic individual.
The liberal would be tempted to say 'we celebrate unbiased individuals.'
The conservative would say we 'agitate licenteous heathens.'
As you can see,the Latin can make for contradictory statements with the same words,depending on the translator.Translation is not a science.Riplinger
Erasmus did not believe in pagan word definitions,in fact the majority of Bible translators never used the lexicons of the day not the dictionaries for defifnitions,but used the Bibles own built in Bible dictionary.
Erasmus had extensive use of libraries and was very aquanted with the venacular Bibles of the day,including the Itala and Italian Bibles.
Erasmus wrote in his preface that he consulted Not the 'Latin Vulgate',but these ancient Italic Bibles.
It was Jerome that corrupted the pure Old Itala Bible in the fourth century.
He admitts in his preface:
"You [Pope Damasus] urge me to revise the Old Latin,and,as it were,to sit in judgement on the copies of Scriptures which are noe scattered throughout the world...Is there not a man,learned or unlearned,who will not,when he takes the volume in hand...call me a forger and a profane person for having had the audacity to add anything to the ancient books,or to make changes...?Riplinger
Erasmus collected coppies of all the other languages.For "he lived in every country in Europe."
He wrote to a friend that he had ammended the Corrupted Latin and Greek editions,and have annotated over a thousand passages.
If Erasmus were alive today,he would have seen that he managed to agree with the 5200 manuscripts in the main and wisely ignored the 44 corrupt ones.
Peter A V said:That's right ignore the 99% and make the disagreements the standard.Real smart.Go ahead and idolize your paganized scriptures,we will trust the words of the living God.
You do lots of work,but to what end?
No person has said that the various early English agree 100%.
That includes the Alexandrians with their own.Now that is a kettle of fish.The Received Text is called the Received Text for a reason;it was received by all.It is the majority text,and that is what just drives all of the schollarship onlyites bannanas.They reject the vast majority of manuscripts that basically agree with each other throughout and throughout history,and side with garbage that has been ressurected as the NEW FINDS,and BETTER READINGS.When in fact they are the MOST corrupted pieces of Biblical literature around.
You give this fake argument of the English not agreeing,when the versions that use the Texus receptus basically agree through out and can be considered the very same text.
We are not talking of the versions that take from the Latin in spots.
We are talking about the T.R.
Plus the language was just being finalized into a stable form.Even in the 1611 edition,I have found diferent readings of the same word on the same page spelt[spelled]diferently.
To say that we have to prove the 100% agreement of KJV throughout history is something that you cabnnot prove yourself,so why do you ask him what you know to be untenable?
So,with the thousands of copies,including the thousands that showed up AFTER 1611,KJV still proves to be by the most honest count, the overwhelming best English edition of the Holy Scriptures ,and are for us,exactly that.
When you set a KJV and a Texus Receptus beside each other,they are basically word for word,as much as a translation will allow
infact,Engish is the best language to translate the Hebrew and the Koine Greek.
Again the Holy Bible wins by a country mile.Yet the scholarship onlyites won't surrender their false standards and start exaggurating the miniscule discrepencies[ that are not
really]to bolster their trust in their own opinions of the versions they prefer.little gods.
Huldrych said:Unfortunately, only one side has to prove themselves if their theories are really to be shown to have substance. They are the ones who make the claim about the existence of one perfect Bible throughout the ages. And they have the most to lose, and the most to gain, if this matter can be settled through evidence. While thousands indeed may have perished, thousands nonetheless have survived. Surely among those thousands is conclusive, maybe even definitive, proof of Onlyism's idea of perfect preservation.
That's nice, and is most useful in helping defend Byzantine readings from Alexandrian. Unfortunately, what we're looking for is something that contains 100% of the KJV's text, since you and other Onlyists claim the KJV to be the present manifestation of the singular Bible God inspired. So far, zilch.
Then your theory of preservation needs re-examination. After all, you did say that "I do believe the Bible itself teaches that God will preserve His pure words in a Book we can hold in our hands and believe every word." and as this applies to Bibles appearing before 1611, "He must have preserved His words in a translation of some kind."
Because we have not made the extravagant claim that proto-KJVs existed before 1611. Our side of the case so far holds true.
That is a rhetorical device known as the "loaded question." It assumes certain things, and demands an answer based on those assumptions. You assume the KJV is today's manifestation of the "inerrant, complete, infallible words of God," but cannot back up those assumptions based on your belief that God preserved His words in some form of the KJV throughout the ages.
Until you can, you really have no basis to ask that question.
jth.