Jesus is God !

JudgeRightly

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Excellent job.

To Christ be the glory.

Bob Hill or Bob Enyart's?

Most of my material is from Bob Enyart, in particular the list of things Jesus said that would be blasphemy if He was not God, especially "I say unto you."

Who is the author

Of the entirety of my post? Or do you mean certain portions?

Because aside from some copy/pasting that I did (such as the bulleted list), I wrote the whole thing.

and let them know they did an exceptional job for me. -Lon

¯\_(ツ)_/¯
 
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Lon

Well-known member
You made no reply to my link on radiometric dating. So called Christians ignore uncomfortable truths both inside the Bible and inside of Science.
A science claim is never to be taken as un-provable truth, we aren't supposed to use it to 'negate' but to 'check.' Science is MUCH more fluid than theology. As to 'in' the Bible:
I haven't disparaged the Lord at all anywhere on this site. You have to invent false accusations when you cant win debates.
This isn't true, Caino. I've told you often where your Urantia thread has clearly disparaged the Lord Jesus Christ. How could you possibly delude yourself that you don't when we have told you, very strongly and clearly in your thread even, where and when it does damage to scripture truths?

Why or how could you think it is about 'losing a debate' at that point? I've clearly showed you, in your thread, where it actually does.
 

Lon

Well-known member
Regarding your first point, I have nowhere made the argument the "Word" is not an actual person. I believe the Word to be the pre-incarnate Jesus as most Trinitarians believe; this changes nothing about what I've argued.

Regarding your second point: You are making the mistake of having tunnel vision once again; you were perfectly able to deduce context changes the use of strong definite language and negative phrases, such in Heb 2:7,8, but with John 1:3 you're ignoring the context of John 1:1 (Gen 1:1) simply because of strong language used. I could just as well say that the writer of Hebrews wanted to further define his use of "all things" in Hebrews 2:8a by the modification "By subjecting all things to him, God left NOTHING that is not subject to him", as to express he meant entirely everything.

The argument you make is weak and ignores the immediate context. It is perfectly acceptable for John to say in regards to the physical creation of the heavens and the earth "not one thing in all creation was made without him", as the creation is in relation to the physical earth and heavens. You repeating the verse word for word and claiming it should be understood in relation to literally everything, SIMPLY BECAUSE YOU SAY IT DOES, does not negate the context of John 1:1 and Gen 1:1. You'll have to try harder.
No, I don't have to try harder. The scripture itself qualifies itself. John 1:3 is indeed emphatic whether you grasp that or not. It says 'without Him "NOTHING" was made that was made! Scripture does! Not Lon! 1607805922804.png
Regarding your third point: I again could say Hebrews 2:8 has a double emphasis just as you are trying to argue, and it was the writer of Hebrews way of clarifying he 'literally' meant God subjected "all things" under man, including himself and the angels.
No, you really cannot. The reason? Simple: You HAVE to ADD to make that happen. I literally did not. It is LITERALLY in scripture. THAT, my friend, is why I don't think you did well on the standardized test in 'Contextual reading.' Why? Because you don't 'seem' to grasp the difference :noway:
The double emphasis does not change the context at all. Hebrews 2:8 "You gave them authority over all things.” Now when it says “all things,” it means nothing is left out." Did you notice the double emphasis and further modification? Should we assume God did in fact subject himself and the angels under Man?
🤔 Yes, I caught the "One emphatic in scripture" and the one YOU 'emphatically said that isn't implicity, but what YOU decided it had to mean.' Do you actually know the difference? Did you do this well in school? It LITERALLY is nothing more than an ability to grasp grammar correctly. I'm convinced that if Unitarians simply knew how to read contextually, they'd not make mistakes like this. Of course, there is part of me that is forgiving because you literally don't know any better, but Jesus told the Pharisees they were accountable because they actually believed they were 'not blind.' Because of that, they took ownership of their own ignorance. It is important, just now, to tell Unitarians, many of you take ownership for your poorer school grades. That is NOT good!
The Genesis account was about the physical creation of the heaven and the earth, John used the phrase "in the beginning" so that the Jewish reader or hearer would think back to Gen 1:1 and understand it in relation to that verse, John easily could have written it as follows and it would have the same intended meaning:

"In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth, and the Word was with God, and the Word was theos...All things were created through him [the Word], and apart from him not one thing was created that has been created"

Again, the "creation" in the above was in relation to the creation of the heaven and the earth, any claim the "creation" in John 1:3 is speaking about anything else other than the creation outlined in Genesis 1 is reading presupposed theology into the verse.
💫 "...without Him, nothing was mad.....THAT WAS MADE." : Plain:
Whether or not it was on purpose or not, this is a strawman. The question and points we are currently discussing have nothing to do with John 1:1c. The rest of the paragraph is fluff imo.
Because you don't want to face it. It was certainly an accusation against your 'assertion/insertion.' YOU are adding to the text. It stands clear despite your stubborn refusal and relegation. So 1) no, I'm denying your strawman claim, it is what you are doing with scripture and 2) I'm denying your 'fluff' dismissal as well. Neither is true, just you squirming and inability to substantiate any of your claims. A bit of advice: Any time you make a statement, especially repeated "fluff," it is projecting. It means it is a comment about yourself, not me.
Let's look at my 'fluff:'
Like you and Modalists, I truly believe there is One God, alone. Yet right in front of me, with no scruples whatsoever is: "Was with" God AND 'was God!' I could try and come to some conclusion BUT listen to what I just said: I could try to come to a conclusion. The problem? 1) me (as a fallible human, despite how intelligent I am, just got in God's way. I cannot possibly know His nature without the scriptures specifically because I am not Him, Not eternal, do not have the wherewithall, AND am a fallen being. I literally, as intelligent as I am, don't know unless He alone tells me (and He has). I don't WANT my-ology. I want His-ology. There is no point and definitely nothing good from me asserting anything.
First line: "There is one God."
NWL: "Fluff."
Second line: John 1:1'
NWL: Calls SCRIPTURE "fluff." : Plain:
Third line: Someone is writing their own narrative and someone is reading and believing God's
NWL: Fluff, strawman
Sixth line: His theology verse 'our-ology'
NWL: "Fluff."
: Plain:
Again, we are not currently discussing John 1:1c. You complain conversations spiral out of control in various other side-arguments develop and yet here you are trying to discuss John 1:1c despite your previous complaint that made me reduce the list of questions you mostly refused to answer to a single one. Let's try and stay focus and concentrate on the matter at hand.

No, it is your false assumption that John emphasis was for the sake of eliminating the immediate context from the statement; nothing in the text suggests John was trying to do this, you simply have a presupposition the "all things" relates to literally all things and thus 'want' to ignore the immediate context.

Does the double emphasis and further modification in Hebrews 2:8 suggest literally 'all things' were subjected to mankind?

Hebrews 2:8 "..You gave them authority over ALL THINGS.” Now when it says “ALL THINGS” it means nothing is left out..."

If your answer is in the negative, then why do you demand it needs to be the case in John 1:3? Lon, is it possible according to the grammar and context John was NOT trying to claim he meant literally 'all things' by the double emphasis? Imo you are stuck, as any denial John might NOT have been trying to claim "all things" meant literally all things, and that the double emphasis demands it, means you have to accept the implication of the double emphasis in Hebrews 2:8.

I know of no unitarian, or anyone for that matter, that has re-written John 1:1. If you're speaking in regards to translating John 1:1 into English in a manner other than the traditional way, then this is not re-writing it, but rather, translating it according to one's own understanding of the grammar and context. But let's not get distracted, let's focus on the matter under question.

I've made my point regarding John 1:3 and how it doesn't necessitate Jesus is the creator, which leaves the door open for the possibility he might be included in creation as it's not excluding him. It seems your only defense against my argument is John's double emphasis; what you seem to ignore however is the reason why I used Hebrews 2:8 specifically, it uses the same sort of negative and definite phrases as John 1:3. On one hand you believe John's emphasis in John 1:3 infers "all things" literally meant all things, yet on the other hand you'll no doubt reject the double emphasis in Hebrews 2:8 and deny the emphasis there infers "all things" literally means all things. I contend John's language in John 1:3 was him enveloping all creation into his statement, and rather, the idea you are pushing is a presupposition that ignores the context of both John 1:1 and Gen 1:1 that both show the creation was limited to physical creation. What are your thoughts?
 

Lon

Well-known member
It's utterly pathetic you claim to have a PhD in the ancient languages, attended seminary, and allude to yourself being scholarly, yet, you can't even refute my point, or, not use use ad hominem in your responses simply to try and bolster your position.
Er, no. I'm very sure you don't even know what an actual ad hominem is. This isn't it. Close, but no. Someone may rightly 'assess' your prowess. That isn't an ad hominem (look up the definition), it is trying to explain why we don't see eye to eye and why I believe the Unitarian conjecture is substandard. In the next paragraph below I address one of the contextual problems I always seem to encounter with every Unitarian I've ever met, or spoken to online.
Judge Rightly: I'm literally giving you the verses. Are you that blind?

I told you before, just because you can't see it there doesn't mean it's not there, and just because you can't understand it doesn't make it false.
Déjà Vu. He has said the exact same thing. It MUST come from his own problem at that point. 🤔 (not a slam or an ad hominem NWL. I'm seeing a pattern and I think it the reason you have trouble with scriptures. Such can be repaired with a bit of education).
I can't make you see from my position until you change your position to mine. It's called a paradigm shift.

Your paradigm won't let you see what I'm telling you. Take the unitarian glasses off, just for a moment.
Similar here. It is either doctrinal blinding, a problem with comprehension from context, or a combination.
The English versions differ as to the precise translation of the first clause of Exodus 7:1. A few contemporary versions agree with the KJV, which takes it to quote the Lord as saying to Moses, “I have made thee a god to Pharaoh” (so, with slight and irrelevant variations, the KJV, NAB, and NJB). Most contemporary versions take the verse to quote the Lord as telling Moses, “I have made you like/as God to Pharaoh” (so, again with minor variations, the ESV, HCSB, NASB, NET, NIV, NKJV, and NRSV). Several versions offer paraphrases that amount to the same thing: “I have put you in the place of God to Pharaoh” (CJB); “I have set thee in God’s stead to Pharaoh” (JPS 1917); “I place you in the role of God to Pharaoh” (TNK); and “I will make you seem like God to Pharaoh” (NLT). The majority of versions is not always right, but in this instance exegesis of the text shows they are quite correct.
Another Déjà Vu. Mayhap it'll help NWL get this, coming from two different people 🤔

So, let's address 'utterly pathetic' which REALLY means you are troubled because your theology is spun by those without the where-with-all on a dime and you are duped, or because I'd mentioned a problem in reading comprehension (nothing to make fun of you for, I am not). We are accountable to God for what is true. That would have me humbled (means you should be humbled before God at this point, you've been wrong).
You at no point explained where I apparently went wrong; simply claiming I made a bad point and have not understood the context is hardly an "expert" response, show me and everyone else on TOL 'WHERE'
It isn't just me. Others have given you correction as well over these same points. I'm not being intentionally mean, although many JW's and other Unitarians, as you've seen, come here pridefully and haughty and with exactly the same demonstrable problem with reading comprehension. What kind of 'expert' response are you needing? I have already shown you why. Yes, I can explain it further. What part didn't you understand? Could you ask for clarification?
and 'HOW' I went wrong.
I believe 'how' is simply a problem with context. It isn't a slam. I think education alone can take care of it. Context is a skill that can be honed.
It's your claim John's double emphasis in John 1:3 negates the context of "all things" being limited to the creation of the heaven and earth as per the context of John 1:1 and Gen 1:1. If this is the case then please tell me what the difference is when it comes to Hebrews 2:8!
Easy. I have one rep so far, it means somebody actually gets it, if not you, against your claim. Now stop. You are not arguing with me, you are arguing against the text. All I said was scripture: John 1:3 “All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.” I realize you keep asking me to stop repeating it, but I prefer God's word be your teacher, especially as you don't like it all from this particular mailman (or however you view me).
HEBREWS 2:8
God put, "all things under man"
We then have a further modification and clarification of the statement, "when it says “all things,” it means nothing is left out."
EXCEPT Hebrews ALREADY told you "...over the works of thy hands" IN the context of 'all.'

Does John? Nope. Hebrews? Yep.

GOD gave you that, not me! YOU are playing quick and fast with scriptures. YOU are! And I'm "utterly pathetic???" YOU are posturing. I don't care if you are emotional, I care about truth AND I want to ensure you have it. Truth does its own work. God does His own work. There is no "Lon" as far as that goes. You don't have to like a mailman (me) or deliveryman. It isn't my aim to make you dislike me, but I'm not really the important part of this conversation. YOU need God and HIS truth.
JOHN 1:3
"All things" were created through Jesus
We then have a further modification and clarification of the statement, "and without him was not any thing made that was made".

You can use as many ad hominem attacks on me as you like Lon, it will never explain away the issue you have on you hands. Please do not respond back if you're only capable of 'claiming' I'm wrong. Please only reply back if you have the ability to explain why I am wrong.
You are wrong. That is NOT an ad hominem. I'll tell you what: report me for it (it is against many forum rules including this one). Telling you 'why' you are wrong is not an ad hominem.
Both verses are in relation to physical creation (see Gen 1:1 and Hebrews 2:7) and both verses double emphasize the extent to what "all things" applies. The limit of John 1:1 emphasis is "not anything" was left out, and the limit of Hebrews 2:8 is also the same by according to the words "[God] left nothing unsubject to him". PLEASE SHOW ME THE DIFFERENCE, PLEASE SHOW ME WHAT I'VE GOT WRONG.
I've done so: One scripture is different than the other, FROM God! His words don't allow you to overstretch (what you are doing) the similarity. You are cloaking an idea that doesn't fit both passages.

Both are emphatic: One upon "All" meaning all and the other "All" directly tied to 'over the works of His hands.' YOU cannot rewrite scripture to fit your theological whim. Do you understand that JW's made that part up for no other reason than to shore up their preconceived notions they are importing into the Bible? That isn't scripture. That isn't following God. That is following men.
Are you able to refute what I say using the scripture, or, are you only able to claim I'm incorrect with literally no reasons as to why? (PLEASE do not repeat John 1:3 until you acknowledge the context of what the "made" in v3 is in relation to, namely Gen 1:1 and explain how it is not an issue. PLEASE do not claim the double emphasis negates the context until you explain the issue I've presented with the double emphasis in Hebrews 2:8).
---------------------------------------------------------------
Maybe not. Your reading comprehension isn't up to par (look just above, I'm attempting to show you why). It means all of us on TOL are going to have to go to remedial means to try and explain and teach reading comprehension. Do I need to start that thread? Will you attend?
How many times do I have to highlight the "without Him, nothing was mad.....THAT WAS MADE" is in regard to Genesis 1:1 as per the context of John 1:1

How many times do I have to tell you, YOU imported that into the text! Do you really not understand that YOU took an idea from your head from one text and imported it into the other? Yes, we both did that with Hebrews, but John 1:3 doesn't say that AND we should be careful doing it with Hebrews 2 as well. It is our ideas, at that point. For my part, I KNOW my ideas, aren't scripture, even if I use scripture in that answer (as you've done). Everybody gets to inspect whether we tied them together correctly and everybody gets to judge whether we've done it correctly or not, because we are not sole authorities on the Word of God. Our ideas are not necessarily God's. EVERY JW gets inspection whether he wants it or not.
Our goal however is God's thoughts, not our own, especially when we can point out problems in another's reading comprehension. It means we don't really have all the tools to make no mistakes. The problem is, perhaps by necessity, that JW's separate themselves and aren't open to correction. We all need to be open and I am talking with you, but to date, as I've said (not an ad hominem) JW's and Unitarians do indeed to seem to have reading comprehension disabilities. They really do. It isn't ad hominem, it is the reason you guys believe the way you do. If you know it, you can address it. It is indeed part of this needed conversation.
Telling me over and over again that "NOTHING WAS MADE WIITHOUT JESUS" whilst ignoring what is being spoken of is in relation to the creation of the Heaven and the Earth makes you look stupid Lon.
Look above. You do realize you are the one being ignorant of 'what is different' right?

Until you express how scripture expresses otherwise then your point is moot.
I did, whether you are capable of grasping the clarity or not. Again, try "reading comprehension" on your part as the answer.
What on earth are you talking about, I've added nothing, all I'm doing is using your own reasoning against you.

Ineptly. I've shown you, clearly. Reading comprehension is something you can work on. Next? YOU brought up John 1:3 as your set up, remember? I simply agreed that the context says 'all' doubled down. Hebrews? All thing of 'the works of His hands.' John 1:3 "all things" and in Hebrews 2:9 All things 'made.' YOU are the one trying to apply it to God, not me. The text ALREADY limits it in Hebrews, not in John.
If the double emphasis in John 1:3 apparently clarifies that "all things" means litreally all things, then how is the double emphasis in Hebrews 2:8 not a clarification that "all things" means all things when it states "For in subjecting all things to him, He [God] left nothing that was not subjected to him".

I told you, because it says clearly right in the exact verse (not another book), or ideas you haphazardly tie together, cobbled together from other books, the Hebrews 2:9 Says 'All things over the works of your hands."
Pure waffle, nothing in this entire paragraph does anything to my point and is you just waffling as you have no idea how to refute my argument.
No. It is about your reading ability.
Again, the "without Him, nothing was mad.....THAT WAS MADE" in John 1:3 is in relation to John 1:1, Gen 1:1, the creation of the heaven and the earth. You sound foolish repeating the same thing over and over.
It's scripture. 1 Corinthians 4:10 We are fools for Christ's sake, but you are wise in Christ. We are weak, but you are strong. You are held in honor, but we in disrepute...
You're a hypocrite Lon, again, the only reason I stopped speaking about John 1:1c with you was because you refused to explain why it could only be translated "was God" in John 1:1c,
Your incapability is not my problem (I'm willing to make it mine, however, if it'd serve you). The reason it can only be translated that way is because ANY reason for any other translation MUST BE because the translation of it demands something is added ONLY to write it correctly into that language. You do not add a word for 'doctrinal' reasons. That isn't translation, that's adding to God's word. The literal word for word is fully functional and stands as correct conveyance.
I asked you to explain several times and you turned down the offer every time. Now that I'm respecting your wish to only answer one question you're randomly bringing up John 1:1c and claiming I don't want to face it, it's truly absurd.
Er, no. You don't ask questions very well AND I've repeated my answers. You've repeated similar with Judge Rightly and he has assessed something similar here. You don't see them? Ask for clarification. Your reading comprehension is not my problem (again, willing to work on it with you). I've given you plenty of profitable ways to get answers should the first query fail. This 'crying' tack doesn't work for me.
 
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Nanja

Well-known member
He is Alpha and Omega , the first and the last ! 2

He is Alpha and Omega , the first and the last ! 2

We have Linked the Lord Jesus Christ, the One speaking in Rev 1:11

11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

And Linked that One to The Redeemer Isa 44:6

6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts;I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

Now we Know that Jesus is the Redeemer, we Know that He is the King of Israel, now lets see also that He is the Lord of Hosts !

Remember Isaiahs Prophecy here Isa 6:1-3

In the year that king Uzziah died I saw also the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up, and his train filled the temple.

2 Above it stood the seraphims: each one had six wings; with twain he covered his face, and with twain he covered his feet, and with twain he did fly.

3 And one cried unto another, and said, Holy, holy, holy, is the Lord of hosts: the whole earth is full of his glory.

You know who that " The Lord of Hosts" is ? Its the Lord Jesus Christ.

Notice in Isa 6:1 when the prophet said he saw the Lord sitting upon a Throne, denoting that He is a King, but it also says that His Train filled the Temple ! This speaks to His being also a High Priest, a Priest on a Throne, Zech 6:13

Even he shall build the temple of the Lord; and he shall bear the glory, and shall sit and rule upon his throne; and he shall be a priest upon his throne: and the counsel of peace shall be between them both.

Thats why He is said to have a Train that filled the Temple. The Word Train here is hebrew shul:

skirt (of a robe)

The Vision of the Divine Being had a Robe On, something that the High Priest would wear as per

of high priest's robe Exodus 28:33 (twice in verse); Exodus 28:34 = Exodus 39:24,25,26

Now this is extrememly important because in the Vision that John has of Jesus Christ in Rev 1 it is stated of the One who spoke the words in Rev 1:11-13 this:

11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

12 And I turned to see the voice that spake with me. And being turned, I saw seven golden candlesticks;

13 And in the midst of the seven candlesticks one like unto the Son of man, clothed with a garment down to the foot, and girt about the paps with a golden girdle.


Thats describing the Train that Daniel saw in the Vision of Isa 6:1-3 ! Its the same Divine Being, the Lord of Hosts, who is God Almighty, but yet, its also the Son of God, not the Father, for the Father is not the High Priest of the People, thats the Sons Role ! Heb 4:14

Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.

Thats who Isa saw as the Lord of Hosts here Isa 6:1-3

In the year that king Uzziah died I saw also the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up, and his train filled the temple.

2 Above it stood the seraphims: each one had six wings; with twain he covered his face, and with twain he covered his feet, and with twain he did fly.

3 And one cried unto another, and said, Holy, holy, holy, is the Lord of hosts: the whole earth is full of his glory.

Also John confirms that Christ is the Lord of Hosts here Jn 12:41

41 These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him.

Amen Brother to both parts, #1054 and #1082.

The Lord Jesus Christ is Indeed God Almighty,
The Alpha and Omega, The first and the last !
 

Nanja

Well-known member
Jesus is God by Authority of Apostolic Testimony !4

Jesus is God by Authority of Apostolic Testimony !4

1 Jn 5:20

20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.

The Apostolic testimony goes to say of Believers, We are in Him that is True, which again can apply to either the Father or the Son, in fact the Father has Chosen all believers in His Son the Lord Jesus Christ before the foundation Eph 1:3-4

3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:

And yet the scripture teaches that the Church is in God the Father as well 1 Thess 1:1

Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the church of the Thessalonians which is in God the Father and in the Lord Jesus Christ: Grace be unto you, and peace, from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.

Now we are in Him that is True, wheter the Father or the Son, Even" in his Son Jesus Christ"

THIS IS THE TRUE GOD AND ETERNAL LIFE !

Amen Brother, excellent 5-Part series that Jesus is God by Authority of Apostolic Testimony ! ****
 
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Lon

Well-known member
Ad hominem: To attack an opponent's character or personal traits in an attempt to undermine their argument
So you know the definition now, when did I attack your character? Did I call you a bad guy? No. Did I make assessments regarding your ability to understand context? Yes. Did it hurt your feelings? Likely, but education is about correction. There is no intent to make you feel poorly. I've repeated many times, it can be fixed by education in most cases.
Comments you made in your third paragraph: "Did you do this well in school?", "if Unitarians simply knew how to read contextually", "many of you take ownership for your poorer school grades"; these are all character attacks. Nothing in your third paragraph in paragraph actually refuted anything I stated, you merely claimed I was not understanding the context of the verse, but nowhere demonstrated in your paragraph or ones after how exactly I was reading it out of context. You attacked "my character" and claimed what you believed to be my lack of reading and comprehension skill in an attempt to undermine my argument, this is called an 'Ad hominem'; please stop being so pedantic.
Sorry. Wrong. Report it if you believe it is. You'll quickly see you are wrong. It is indeed against the rules on TOL.
I asked JR to produce verses that explicitly teach the trinity, i.e, "There is one God who is three persons, namely, the Father/Son/HS, and that these three persons are co=-equal and co-eternal. He's yet to produce a single verse that teaches anything I just stated, he's within his right to deny this, but doing so does not necessarily make him correct.
Your accusation. You are incorrect. The above is a paraphrase (summation) of scripture. John 1:1ff is very close to that, however. We disagree that he hasn't produced verses. I do agree you don't look at the context of paragraphs in scripture and recognize them as triune expressions YET (and please hear this) of the millions of Christians on the planet, they DO see triune expressions. Only a VERY few don't and these are NOT those who did fantastic in school (NOT an ad hominem). I'm trying to get you to compare for a moment. If I happened to have D's in English, I could still rest a bit on the fact that men and women smarter than I (A's B's) agreed with the context of scriptures, that God is triune in expression. The problem? If I even have C+ or B+ grades in English and other languages, I'm not qualified to challenge my professors' teaching. It doesn't matter how right I 'think' I am, if my skills to discern aren't there. God's word is spiritually discerned, but the teaching of the words are grammar and a clear grasp of English and Greek grammar are of paramount importance to 'challenging' the majority view. Is it therefore ad hominem to bring this up? No. It is a standard that HAS to be met by ANY challenger of what most see as biblical doctrine.
It is the requirement.
What am I meant to "get" about Exo 7:1, you didn't express what specific translation you agreed with or what point I wasn't getting that you and JR agree with? In fact, in the paragraph you quoted from JR, he did not even make a point direct point but simply expressed how various translations render the Exo 7:1. I do not deny the existence of different variation of English translations of Exo 7:1 so what point am I meant to "get", for you to say, "Mayhap it'll help NWL get this, coming from two different people"?
The fact that you make 'the same' accusation/observation of a 'problem' with another's posts and supposed inability. Here is ONE instance of you missing 'context.' I wasn't addressing Exodus and will leave that to Judge Rightly (unless you have a specific need for me to enter that part of the conversation). I'm rather concerned you say the same thing to an entirely different person, blaming/accusing them of something YOU need to own yourself. It isn't that all of us are somehow all suddenly smitten with the same problem you seem to attribute to all of us. As far as I've read Judge Rightly in thread, I don't have the same problems you do with the context of his statements. He is capable, regardless of your suggestion he is not. YOUR assessments are incorrect.
Both the Hebrew and the Greek of Exo 7:1 express the same thing, both use the term God and apply it to Moses, this is a fact.
You mean the Septuagint? Exodus was written in Hebrew. Are you sure you know what a fact is?

English translations try to make sense of what the application means by translating the text as, "like God", "a G-god", "as God", "in Gods place", but this does not negate the fact a direct application of the word "theos" and "elohim" is applied to Moses. I agree with most if not all the variations of the text, as all of them express more or less the same thing.
Yet, they must not be translations with 'added' ideas not express in the first language. That is taking liberty with the text and writing a man-made doctrine bible.
You answer with the word "easy", but, nowhere did you address my actual question. You stated I'm not arguing against you but against the text, quoted John 1:3, highlighted that I asked you to stop repeating, and expressed you prefer to use God's word to be my teacher, BUT WHERE DID YOU DEAL WITH MY POINT. Let me remind you, you said it was "easy" but nowhere tackled it.
As I said, YOU brought up John 1:3. YOU gave me an option to pick. I picked. Whatever after YOU wanted, whether I jumped through your hoop or not, is not of consequence. You have a bit of a demanding nature. I don't like doing poodle tricks THEN complaining because I chose to walk around a couple of them. In this case YOU need to provide a clear path to the next hoop. I've entertained your whims to this point.
Again, I stated "it's your claim John's double emphasis in John 1:3 negates the context of "all things" being limited to the creation of the heaven and earth as per the context of John 1:1 and Gen 1:1. If this is the case then please tell me what the difference is when it comes to Hebrews 2:8!", how does quoting John 1:3 show the difference between it and Hebrews 2:8 when I already expressed the word "all things" and "made" in John 1:3 are contextually in reference to John 1:1 and Gen 1:1.
This is the fourth time. John simply says "all things." Done. Hebrews says "All things by the works of His hands."
One has a 'modifier' prepositional phrase "under His hands" which limits man from being 'God's boss. Its a silly attempt and academically, grammatically untenable.

John 1:3 rather has a conjunction: "And without Him, nothing was made that was made (period)." Do you grasp the difference?
"Does John do it", you ask, yes he does! How could you be so utterly bold to say the context of John 1:3 is not limited in the same way as Hebrews 2:7,8. Again, John opens up with "in the beginning", this is a direct parallel to Genesis 1:1, do you agree or disagree that John was referencing the "beginning" as mention in Gen 1:1 by his words found in John 1:1 Lon?
Jumping texts isn't exegesis. It is violent to the text. It reminds me of the guy that was looking for guidance from scripture in his lowest hour: He opened up to "Judas hung himself." Desperate, he cracked his bible again and his finger landed on "go and do likewise." Just because it is in scripture, doesn't mean we can violently rip one context and place it in another 'to fit our idealoogical/theological beliefs.' That is an abuse and misuse of scripture. In this case, John doesn't tell us. We should not assume. It 'could' be Genesis 1. Is it wise to then, go off and build a theology off of assumptions? :nono:
It is one thing telling someone they have not understood the context of a particular passage, and a completely another thing to claim they have not understood the context due to them being uneducated, having bad school grades, or them being an ignorant unitarian (as if all unitarians are ignorant).
I'm not sure it is. Often it is clear they do not have those tools, and yes, I do even question the academics of the PhD you quoted. There IS something wrong with reading comprehension to say such things and I do believe, from many conversations, that there is a profound ignorance.
You've repeated the same said comments in many of your post, it's hard to believe they are you innocently speaking your mind, over being backhanded, and belittling insults. Either they are ad hominem attacks or backhanded insults; either is bad and should have no place in these discussions.
No, they are a pattern. I HAVE to believe you have reading problems or you couldn't be a Christian. I've come to think that the remedial class can catch up. I know a few ex-Unitarians. They finally 'got it' and it was academic. God simply corrected them.
I do not understand how you cannot see where what you're saying contradicts itself. I understand you take the "over the works of your hand" as the limiting factor of the word "all" in Hebrews 2:8; "all things" can only be understood as far as the context that being "the works of [Gods] hands", namely creation. What you've yet to make sense of is the fact John 1:3 also has a limiting factor, namely, John 1:1 and its reference of the "beginning" of Gen 1:1. Hebrews 2:8 and Gen 1:1 have the same limiting factor as both are in reference to the "works of Gods" hand as per Gen 1:1 and Hebrews 2:7
Because it is an assumption NOT implicit in the text. YOU are that missing factor. That is THE problem of not reading for context AND going beyond the text to make an assumption. Again, I'm convinced education is the answer to Unitarianism. I DO realize that means I attribute most if not all Unitarian thought to ignorance, but better that than a spiritual problem (though they can be the same thing).
If the "all" in Hebrews 2:8 is directly tied to 'over the works of His hands' as per v7, then on what basis to do ignore what John was directly tieing the word "all" to in John 1:3 when he referenced God creating the heaven and the earth by paralleling Gen 1:1? (Question is dependant on your answer to John 1:1 in relation to Gen 1:1)

If your defense is that a double emphasis can negate the direct context, then what do you do with the double emphasis in Hebrews 2:8?
The restatement always means to be emphatic.
This is coming from the person who wasn't pressed a single question multiple times in a row and then stated 'he wasn't even aware what question I was even asking him'; who, states something is 'easy' and then fails to actually address the issue he called "easy". I believe your reading and comprehension skills are poor, you'll no doubt disagree with this the same way I'll disagree with you. I would not be so belittling to ask you to attend my reading comprehension thread. Again, stop with the backhanded comments.
Ah, see? You don't just do this to JudgeRightly and others, you do it to me as well. It is from YOUR repetoire (means your hangup, not most of ours).
I believe it was John who was importing it as it was him making the parallel. According to what you said you'll be forced to deny scriptures such as John 8:58 teach Jesus is YHWH as any thought that someone is attempting to parallel prior scripture by their words is "importing thoughts" into the text; such an idea is ridiculous, it is literally what is required when exegeting. There are plenty of texts where the writer is referencing a prior text or events leaving it to the reader to understand and make such a deduction, the fact you claim this is incorrect creates more issues for a trinitarian than it solves.

(1) In the beginning.—The reference to the opening words of the Old Testament is obvious, and is the more striking when we remember that a Jew would constantly speak of and quote from the book of Genesis as Berēshîth (“in the beginning”).
In the beginning - This expression is used also in Genesis 1:1. John evidently has allusion here to that place, and he means to apply to "the Word" an expression which is there applied "to God."
In the beginning was (ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν): With evident allusion to the first word of Genesis.
John 1:1-2. In the beginning — Namely, of the creation, (for the evangelist evidently refers to the first word of the book of Genesis, בראשׁית, bereshith, rendered by the LXX. εν αρχη, the expression here used,)
It doesn't matter what "Ellicott" says! It matters what scriptures say and it matters if one grasps contextual truth or not. One of the first rules of exegesis is "Do not import your ideas, export His."
My incapability? Did you read what I wrote, YOU were the one who refused to speak about it, not me.
YOU brought up John 1:3 and asked ME to comply jumping through YOUR hoops. You like arguing, don't you?
In regards to your 'reason', I've said to you many times before, no, the traditional translation does not make sense. Remember, if Jesus is "the God", and "the God" in John 1:1b was the Father or the trinity, then Jesus 'is' the Father or the trinity. Remember was YOU that expressed in your last post that I've "imported" the idea that John 1:3 is in relation to John 1:1 and Gen 1:1 and suggest I'm incorrect to have imported such an idea since God's word does not directly state it. Now let's apply your little principle to John 1:1.

John 1:1 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with THE GOD, and the Word was THE GOD.

Without "importing" anything that isn't explicitly stated apart from what's expressed in the text itself, explain to me how the translation of the "Word was THE GOD", which infers Jesus was "THE GOD" (definite), doesn't imply Jesus 'was' the trinity or the Father? Good luck.
Without importing anything John 1:1 states "Was with God 'AND' was God."
Without 'importing' John continues "The Word 'became' flesh." Therefore, without convolution, from the text, the One who became Flesh is the Word, therefore 'with and was God' in the flesh.

NOW there are in fact other scriptures that say exactly this. At this point, I know of ONLY one being ever that 'became' flesh.
 

Lon

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It is painfully hard and awkward to read and respond to your post JR due to misquotations and the sporadicness of your post.
A shortcoming on your part? 🤔 Again, learn to ask where you are confused instead of blaming others for what you don't understand (even if it is sometimes their fault). Just a suggest, leave it or take it. You CAN become better at conversation and ask good leading questions. Part of it is learning to care about the subject matter and the one you are talking with. I know you don't think I've been kind, but I haven't been quite as mean as you assume. Stern perhaps, but not mean.
 

Lon

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You said above "For ANY created being to utter those things in the same contexts of the verses they are found in, it would be blasphemy", says who, you? If the one God, namely the Father, ordained that all things are to go through his Son Jesus, then it is hardly blasphemy as it was God himself who ordained it; for it to be blasphemy, Jesus would've had to have said all those things without recognizing the Father when doing so, we see the exact opposite of this. Jesus said things such as:

"The things I say to you I do not speak of my own originality, but the Father who remains in union with me is doing his works." (John 14:12)
"For I have come down from heaven,
not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me." (John 6:38)
"I do exactly as the Father commanded Me." John 14:31
What version are you using? 🤔
Spoiler

So when Jesus says all the things you made mention of, he says them as the Father told him to say such things and ordained such things to be done to him. Jesus himself said, "No one comes to the Father except through me" (John 14:6), so many of the actions done in Jesus name are not for his own namesake but rather to draw ourselves closer to the Father and bring him glory, we can see this in action in Phil 2:9-11 that states "For this very reason, God exalted him to a superior position...so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend...and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father". Notice, how the Father appoints Jesus above every single thing so that every knee has to bend to his Son, but to whose glory is it? It's to the glory of "God the Father"! Bending the knee is not for Jesus' glory but for the glory of the Father, who Paul categorizes as the "one God". Jesus is

You said "I'm literally giving you the verses. Are you that blind?", you're giving me verses yes, but which of those verses teach 'God is one being who is three persons who are co-equal and co-eternal'? None! Remember you claimed the scriptures "teaches", I do not deny the segments of the trinity doctrine can be conceived by piecing various scriptures together, but to claim the scriptures "teach it" is a claim it's explicitly taught and is clear, which it is not.

Regarding your points:
1) this imply Gods, not God, the trinity doctrine teaches there is one God, not Gods, so I don't understand how it proves the doctrine over contradicting it.
2) No translation translates it this way, it's an argument from technicality. There is no reason to understand the text over the general meaning of "one" in English. Also, such an argument assumes the Holy Spirit and Jesus are ever directly called YHWH, they never are.
3) I don't believe you made that argument, if you did I missed it.
4) It's your claim it's blasphemous. Nothing Jesus said could be considered blasphemy if he gives all glory to God (Phil 2:11).
5) It depends on how you understand the term "God" there; is John 1:1c definite, indefinite or qualitative?
6) You merely asserted Hebrews 1 teach Jesus the Son is God, nowhere did you show this. I do not deny Jesus can be called God, I deny he's the "one God".
7) This has yet to be fully shown other than your comments where you assume the term "God" is applied to him.
8) I agree.

(Acts 5:1-42) "However, a man named An·a·niʹas, together with his wife Sap·phiʹra, sold some property. 2 But he secretly held back some of the price, with his wife’s knowledge, and he brought just a part of it and deposited it at the feet of the apostles. 3 But Peter said: “An·a·niʹas, why has Satan emboldened you to lie to the holy spirit and secretly hold back some of the price of the field? 4 As long as it remained with you, did it not remain yours? And after it was sold, was it not in your control? Why have you thought up such a deed as this in your heart? You have lied, not to men, but to God.”

Notice where it states "deposited it at the feet of the apostles" that no doubt included Peter. Lies do not have to be verbal but can be done by actions, this is common sense; Ananias pretended to deposit the full price of his property but rather only deposited some of the price "at the feet of the apostles", this amounted to lying. Again, the lie could be said attributed to the Holy Spirit as it was the Holy Spirit that was empowering the apostles, whose feet the money was deposited at, the lie was ultimately towards God as the Holy Spirit belongs and comes from God; nothing I've said is inconsistent with what the bible teaches.


This is a poor deduction. Romans 9:17 states "For Scripture says to Pharaoh: "I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth", 1 Cor 15:26 "The last enemy to be destroyed is death", Isaiah 24:23 "Then the moon shall be confounded, and the sun ashamed; for Yahweh of Armies will reign on Mount Zion.

How can scripture speak to Pharoah, only something that is human can speak, should we conclude the scriptures are a person, or death is a person as it is an enemy, or that the sun and moon are persons as they can become confounded and ashamed? Such deductions are poor. It seems you ignored the verses that clearly express an action toward someone actings on a person or God's behalf is an action to them themselves. Again, Ananias and his wife lied to God as it was God who empowered Peter by means of Jesus to read people's hearts and retains someone's sin, there is nothing inconsistent with this, and nothing you've stated demands that the HS is God according to Acts.

You said the above in relation to my comment of "(2. Does the Bible refer to each of these persons as God?) No, it refers to the Father as the 'one God'.

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) "..there is no God but one. 5 For even though there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God, the Father..."

As shown, the Father is the only person placed in the category of the "one God", Jesus and the HS are left out as they were not considered as being the "one God".

No, I mean God. Isaiah 9:6 Jesus is called 'GOD', in John 20:28 Jesus is called 'GOD', Hebrews 1:8 Jesus is called 'GOD'. What you are mistaking is because JW's understand John 1:1c as calling Jesus "a god", that we do not understand him as ever being called 'God', this is not true. Whatsmore, the Bible in its original form made no such distinction when it came to capitalization, so it really does not matter if I say I believe Jesus to be 'God' over 'god', or 'a god' over 'a God'. All the original books would've been writing in upper case with no distinction between lower case as we have in english.

See the above comments, there would have been no such distinction in the original writings, they would've been written in all capital letters. Again, Moses was called ELOHIM, as were angels, and men. Satan and men are called THEOS and HO THEOS, GOD and THE GOD in John 10:34 and 2 Cor 4:4, there was no such thing as a lower case g GOD in the minds of the OT or NT writers, so my point still stands.

Lol, the writing you posted literally agree's with me "Thus, the LXX rendering of Exodus 7:1 is also easily interpreted as referring to Moses as “God” metaphorically. In light of Exodus 4:16, that is exactly how we should take it.3 This means that we should translate elohim and theos in Exodus 7:1 “[as] God” rather than “a god.”"

The fact of the matter is both the Greek and Hebrew literally call Moses Elohim (theos), and this was the only point I was making. It doesn't matter why Moses was called God, whether he was God literally (which we both would deny) or if the application was metaphorical as the article states and I agree, the fact is he was called ELOHIM. Other beings who are not the "one God" can be referred to as God without it demanding they are the one God. Again, look up Exo 7:1, 2 Cor 4:4, Ps 8:5, John 10:34, all those verses have beings who are not the "one God" labelled as GOD (remember, you claiming they are called gods over Gods in our 'English translations' changes nothing).

Lol, and who is identified as being the "one God" in 1 Cor 8:6? It's the Father! Jesus is not spoken of being the one God if that's what you're suggesting, no translation reads that way. The verse is very clear, there is one God, who is the Father, and one Lord, who is Jesus Christ.

In other words, yes, the Bible teaches there is only one God, big 'G,' which is what I asked.
"God" is not a name, it's a title, this is very basic; YHWH (Yahweh/Jehovah) is God's name. Again, I'll let Paul define it for me as he does so perfectly, "there is no God but one. For even though there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,”  there is actually to us one God, the Father.
What English versions are you using? It makes sense you believe this way, these translations are a bit odd, in translating. If you can learn Greek, do so.
This one of your's:
"The things I say to you I do not speak of my own originality, but the Father who remains in union with me is doing his works." (John 14:12)
Should be "Truly, truly I say to you believing,in me; the works that I do he will do as well and greater {works}(pronoun τούτων) he will do, because I am to the Father going.

Incidentally:
"For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me." (John 6:38)
"I do exactly as the Father commanded Me." John 14:31
I agree with you. The Son is not the Father and is subject to Him 'as far as "I" grasp the scriptures.' It is open to inspection by all, but the scripture above does indicated it. It is a 'shared' truth by Unitarians and Trinitarians. It means that it isn't a great point of debated, but shared between us. We both believe the Son is not the Father so these scripture references are undisputed. I'd think that Judge Rightly's point does not negate this. He is simply saying that He "and the Father are one." Of course He believes the Son is subordinate as per Philippians 2:6,7.
He was just trying to show you that the Lord Jesus Christ also has the authority 'to take it up again.' John 10:18
 
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JudgeRightly

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Loool! Its keeps getting better and better. What you seemed to ignore is that according to your definite understanding of the text the "Word was THE GOD",

Actually, the Greek says ".... kai [And] ho [the] logos [Word] en [was] pros [with] ton [the] theon [God], kai [and] theos [God] en [was] ho [the] logos [Word]."

thus if the Word was THE GOD and THE GOD is synonymous with the word TRINITY then the Word was the Trinity according to the text. We must remember there is one God.

I'm pretty sure I addressed this in my previous reply, and if not, let me address it here and now.

We don't believe that "God" is "synonymous" with the word "trinity."

God is triune, yes. But it would be a straw man to say that we believe that the two are synonymous, because man is also triune (because he is comprised of three parts, body, soul, and spirit).
 
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JudgeRightly

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Lon as stated he believes John 1:1c is definite, so whilst I agree with you that the Greek states what you suggested it stated,

I didn't just "suggest" it.

That's what it actually, really, says.

understanding it in the definite sense infers the Word was God in relation to identity, thus 'the word was THE GOD'.

Yes, the Word is the God.

I think I did miss that, perhaps you'll be so kind to refer to me where you explained such a thing; I do recall you stating YHWH was not synonymous with the word "Trinity". Regardless, I do not think you have an orthodox understanding of the trinity as you've made it clear in your writings to me you understand the bible teaches GODS, despite the trinity teaching there is only one God who is three persons.

The trinity is synonymous with the word God; again, the trinity is that God is one being who is three persons:

holy_trinity_shield-420x280.jpg

None of these persons are each other and all three persons equate the one God. How is the term "God" to a trinitarian any different when compared to the word trinity? If you placed the word "trinity" in the middle circle in the above image there would be no difference in understanding. So whilst you're within your right to claim the word "God" does not carry the same meaning behind it towards to the "trinity", it certainly does have the same meaning. One way to prove this is to define the word 'trinity' and define the word 'God', you will find that to a trinitarian they both mean the same thing minus the connations of numeracy the word 'trinity' infers.

My problem is not that God is triune, nor that the Trinity is a word that describes God.

My problem is with you using the term "synonymous."

It implies that you're saying that the word "Trinity" has the same definition that the word "God" does.

But they do not have the same meaning/definition.. Allow me to clarify:

The word "Trinity" means:


the Christian Godhead as one God in three persons: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.
- a group of three people or things.
- the state of being three.



The word "God" means:


- (in Christianity and other monotheistic religions) the creator and ruler of the universe and source of all moral authority; the supreme being.
- (in certain other religions) a superhuman being or spirit worshiped as having power over nature or human fortunes; a deity.



The two words are not synonymous, and neither are the concepts, for lack of a better term.

Again, yes, "Trinity" describes only one aspect of God. But "God" is more than just the Trinity, (not in number, but in qualities).

God is living, personal, relational, good, and loving.

To address your other point:

Yes, the Logos is The God.

So too the Father is The God.

So too the Holy Spirit is The God.

Three in One.

Three Persons, one Being.

Three WHOs, one WHAT.
 

JudgeRightly

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@NWL To put it into logical terms:

You're saying that we say that God == Trinity.

But that's not what we're saying. We are saying God = Trinity.

There's a difference.
 

Lon

Well-known member
Loool! Its keeps getting better and better. What you seemed to ignore is that according to your definite understanding of the text the "Word was THE GOD", thus if the Word was THE GOD and THE GOD is synonymous with the word TRINITY then the Word was the Trinity according to the text. We must remember there is one God.
A bit convoluted. You'll have to unpack this (regardless of how funny it seems to be to you). I can tell you, straight up, you haven't really listened. You attack ideas that nobody presented long before you ever listen. This IS the Unitarian problem more often than not. Again, it is a reading comprehension problem. You've made all kinds of them in thread (and I can point them out if you like). Comprehension is of supreme importance in reading God's word.
If I were to ask you who is "THE GOD" mentioned in John 1:1b, according to your ridiculous principle of "not importing ideas and other text", you'll be forced to admit it's the Word according to what is said in John 1:1c. The text does not identify who "THE GOD" is in v1b and only expresses in v1c that "THE WORD WAS THE GOD". You cannot claim it's the Father in v1b, since that would be "importing ideas" into the text, so your left with Jesus being the trinity itself!
Ridiculous principle? You are applying scripture willynilly if you do this any other way. ASK before you assume. I've not said the Word is Jesus (yet) but John does.
You say "The Word 'became' flesh", so the Trinity became flesh right? If the Word was "THE GOD" (i.e the trinity, since, there is only "one God" according to the trinity) and the Word, namely, THE GOD, became flesh then THE GOD/TRINITY became t flesh!
You don't understand trinit-arian. We HALF agree with you, which means you are making a strawman. We go 'part way' with you. To not grasp this, is not really grasping the triune view. It is not at all three gods, though I do acquiesce I've seen some trinitarians argue to the point of tritheism. I agree with a lot of Unitarian points. What I'd point out in YOUR reasoning here, is that the text goes beyond your mentioned grasp: Not only 'was God' "Was with God." Both. It is a tightrope walk and we believe both, not either or.
I'm also assuming you deny Jesus was referencing himself to YHWH by his words found in John 8:58, I'd like to see how far I can get you to dig but the rules you keep inventing. A claim that John 8:58 proves Jesus was YHWH is importing scripture, would you not agree?
It is not an invention. It has long been taught. Let me state it again: "Don't import you, export God's thoughts." Let me ask: How much of YOU do you want involved or getting in God's way? How much of Him would you prefer over your own fallibility (and mine)? Based upon what I assume needs to be your own answer, you should likely stop claiming 'absured' and start realizing where you need to agree, if you really do not. It is time to make that commitment to Him and that change if you haven't done so already.
I do not get insulted at silly comments.
Yes, you do. It doesn't matter if they are silly or not. It really doesn't matter. Anger or laughter or whatever are simply emotion. God moves us by passion, but He changes us by our minds.
The fact of the matter is you should keep your personal opinions and backhanded comments to yourselves;
Not a fact. Rather, it is your preference. Let's see if you can ask nicely instead of coming to a Trinitarian board, starting arguments, and then trying to blame it on everyone else in poor manners. Let's see you instead, look at yourself and see if there be any wicked way Psalm 139:23-24 🤔

if you cannot fathom how such comments would in most cases be seen as character attacks then you lack the common sense for me to be able to properly articulate why such comments would be seen as ad hominem given my position and the manner of some of your responses.
As I've repeated, if you are so sure, report it. See if anyone else but you believes so. 🤔
Your argument overlooks the fact there have been numerous scholars and highly intelligent laypersons who do not come to the conclusion of the existence of a trinity; there are also millions of people who don't see the teaching of the trinity in the bible. Part of the argument you make an ad populum argument, just because more people accept an understanding doesn't make it correct.
Less than .01% That means 'dismal.' You are trying to pad your numbers THEN telling me I'm arguing ad populum (you don't even know what that argument is either, it has to fit a certain criteria). Pop-statistics aren't your friend.
You state "if I even have C+ or B+ grades in English and other languages, I'm not qualified to challenge my professors' teaching", you may feel like you are not qualified, but that does not mean you can come up with a deduction contrary to your professors which is not true, nor is there anything that suggests you can't express why you are correct. To suggest that someone who does not have equivalent academic achievements as someone they disagree with 'means' they should submit to the other party's understanding of a particular subject infers a constant appeal to authority.
Yes, it does. Specifically? If you don't do well in math, You SHOULD get an auditor to do your taxes for you!
You give yourself too much merit Lon, many times you are extremely vague in what you say,
What credit?
your previous comment which I replied to was simply another example.
Er, no.
You quoted JR's own quote of an article of Exo 7:1 and stated "Another Déjà Vu. Mayhap it'll help NWL get this, coming from two different people 🤔", however, JudgeRightly made not point or comments but simply quoted an article; for you to then say "Another Déjà Vu. Mayhap it'll help NWL get this, coming from two different people" regarding a quotation of a third-party article left me with the belief your comment was in relation to that article, since, what else could your comment be about as JR made no direct point and you stated nothing that suggests anything else otherwise.
Er, you just accused me of being 'extremely vague.' Your sentence above is random. Pot. Kettle. Black. Own it.
It was for this reason, I said "what point was I not getting", you've now since explained as per the above by saying "you say the same thing to an entirely different person, blaming/accusing them of something YOU need to own yourself", please explain to me how I was meant to gather that by your quotation of JudgeRightly quote of a third-part article? I did not miss the context, I missed the fact you poorly explain what you meant when you said "Déjà Vu" by quoting an article.
Doesn't matter, I wasn't talking to you. I was talking to Judge Rightly.
Is your memory that bad Lon,
No, your reading comprehension is this bad...
it was only last month we were speaking about the LXX, now you're trying to 'shame' me by acting I have no clue about because I say "Greek" in relation to the OT.
No, I'm questioning your 'facts' because you often say 'facts' but really OFTEN mean debatable opinions. "Hebrew" was simply to get you to realize you over-state your ideas. Learn to lift HIM up more than yourself, NWL.
You full well know, or perhaps your memory is just that bad,
No, just you making a weak attempt to defend yourself, caught once again with a 'fact' that isn't one.
that I know what the Septuagint is and that's obviously what I was talking about when I used the word "Greek", you're being very pedantic again. Please stop this "shaming" tactic thing you keep doing, again, it should have no place in these types of conversations; if you think that lowly of me simply stop responding.
Fine.
 

Lon

Well-known member
What point have I not listened to? I've clearly understood your position, I simply brought in a point I believed you ignored, namely, that to a trinitarian, "the God", when understood in a definite sense, relates to 'identity'. The 'identity' of God isn't Jesus, it isn't the Father, and it isn't the HS, the identity of who God is (to a trinitarian), is the Father/Son/HS in one being, the Trinity; all three persons form the "one God". Therefore, if the Word (who we both agree refers to Jesus) is 'THE GOD', according to John 1:1c, then it infers he is either the God (Father) of John 1:1b or the trinity, there is no way around this. What I'm attacking is your principle that one cannot use 'scripture to interpret scripture', which leaves you utterly stuck in what John 1:1 infers by your definite understanding of the text.

Your claim that I have comprehension problems no more proves I have such an issue any more than me saying YOU have a comprehension proves you do. The fact of the matter is this, if Jesus is being identified as THE GOD in John 1:1c then he is 'the trinity', thus, according to what you say, along with this understanding in mind, "THE GOD", i.e the Trinity, became flesh. This is not too hard to grasp. If you believe I'm wrong, please do not simply assert there is a comprehension issue, rather, explain where the fault lies in my reasoning and enlighten me.

Another example of you being pedantic; it's generally not necessary to comb over each other beliefs when we have a general understanding of each other's faith. Trinitarians generally accept the Word as being the pre-incarnate Jesus; it was not an assumption but a presumption.

Yes, the principle of "you cannot interpret scripture with scripture" is ridiculous,
To you. You are less than a percent. Who cares what you think? You don't have the where-with-all anyway, so it means fairly next to nothing coming from you. Ask a few more TOL members what they believe and if "Don't import you, export Him" is "ridiculous." You are the one who is ridiculous. You, alone, don't really matter (not a slam, it is just that one voice crying isn't a pip on the radar of discussion, especially without being vested.
hence why you are silent in rejecting the common trinitarian claim Jesus was claiming to be YHWH according to John 8:58, the same way you wouldn't deny the trinity simply because Jesus said "the Father is greater than I",
It doesn't mean what YOU think it does. He said Himself the Father and He are One. So again, just like John 1:1: BOTH. THAT is the Unitarian error. You read one and literally filter the other out. YOU do. YOU filter out scripture to 'rationalize' (musings of men) something you contrive, so that you can understand it, instead of just believing the unique clarity. YOU do. JW's so much, they rewrite scriptures. That is a sin. Then you call the other: to preserve God's word in its original meaning "ridiculous." You are simply wrong and advocating for every odd fellow to import his/her own ideas instead of exporting His! AND YOU call that ridiculous.
rather, you'd no doubt claim Jesus was either speaking in relation to his humanity here, possibly use Phil 2:7, or highlight that subservience in role does not equate to subservience in essence. But oh wait! You can't express any of that as you can only focus on what the scripture literally says and not "import" idea's or assume other texts can interpret what is being spoken of. Again, the principle you expressed is ridiculous and I know of no expert who follows it. If you believe I'm wrong, please do not simply assert I'm wrong, rather, explain where the fault lies in with what I said, simple assertions from you are a dime a dozen.
Yet I have the where-with-all.
You say "the text goes beyond your mentioned grasp: Not only 'was God' "Was with God." Both." yes, but such a contradiction should also lead you to believe the translation is wrong, rather than believing in a text that makes no sense and play the infamous trinitarian mystery card.
I don't need a translation. You could try and take a couple of language classes.
Again... if the Word was "THE GOD" that he was with, then Jesus was the TRINITY. Trinitarians do not believe Jesus was God in identity, they believe he was God in nature, since the identity of God isn't Jesus, rather it the Father/Son/HS. THIS IS WHY A DEFINITE TRANSLATION OF JOHN 1:1c MAKES NO SENSE, as the definite understanding of John 1:1c infers the identity of THE GOD was the word. You keep expressing "Not only 'was God' "Was with God", fine, but all you're doing is expressing Sabellianism by such a comment.

Summarisation
God is three persons, namely the Father/Son/HS
A definite understanding of John 1:1c infers the Word's identity was THE God (i.e the Father/Son/HS)
A qualitative understanding of John 1:1 infers the Word was THE God by nature

It doesn't matter if the text states the Word was with THE GOD, especially since we "cannot import idea's or other text" but must simply accept scripture for what it says, right? Thus, the Word was THE GOD (TRINITY). Again, modern trinitarian scholarships deny the definite sense of John 1:1c.


You said in regards John 8:58, "It is not an invention. It has long been taught", so hold on, I'm incorrect for importing scripture and applying it to another scripture, but when the masses do it for a long time it, therefore, becomes acceptable? As if time somehow equates truth. Is this seriously your excuse? Again you show your inconsistency. I'm not asking if the masses have been teaching that John 8:58 shows, Jesus, as YHWH, I'm asking YOU if you believe applying Exo 3:14 is a good deduction based on your "rule" of importing ideas into texts.

Regarding your quote above I would agree with you if you qualified what "import" means. At present me deducting and applying clear language parallels ("the beginning" Gen 1:1, John 1:1, 1 John 3:8) to scripture and applying the context is "importing" according to you. If you mean, however, that the qualified "importing" is assuming man-made doctrines, ideas, or concepts into scriptures that have at no time been expressed in scripture, then I would agree with you.t
No, you called it ridiculous. Don't try and be reasonable now. You import ideas all over the place, such is your dismal ability to lift meaning 'from' the text. There is no other way to do that, than to use that method that strictly says "not my will, but Thine" which YOU call "ridiculous."
To me its seems you are really having a hard time denying the common trinitarian understanding of John 8:58, all I want to see is how consistent you are in your reasoning; why should I take the advice you have given if you can't even demonstrate you follow it yourself consistently.
You are projecting as well as trying to force something. No. I'm consistent, regardless of whom you've come into contact prior.
I thought I was the one who was bad at reading context?
You are. Just above, YOU force the narrative. YOU do.
My comments, including the ones from the prior conversation, were in relation to expressing 'personal opinions about one's character', I was not claiming people should not be giving their personal opinions in general no matter the subject.

JW's number twenty million, that number alone compared to the rest of Christians in the world (two billion) brings the number to above 1%, nowhere near the 0.01 you've calculated. This doesn't consider other unitarian denominations and doesn't account for the 'cultural Christians', that make up the vast majority of the Christians in the world today. I've been publically speaking to people about the bible for over twenty years, the vast amount of Christians I speak who identify as Christian, don't even know Jesus is God according to their faith, many get confused and believe in modalism unwittingly and only a small majority understand God is a trinity, as it is taught.
Don't know who you got this from, but it is a lie. Demonstrably. It is why I question everything from you. You are found wanting and incapable.
Also, should we include the 1.8 billion Muslims in the world too, who claim to be Torah and Injil accepting, but see no Trinity dcotrine expressed, I think not.
Who cares? You import ideas out of context. You have a problem with your reasoning ability. You compare oranges to apples and call it gold and it is simply wrong. While you 'think' you presume, you rather assume a lot. Your thoughts are contrived associations often. In this case, "Muslims" are not Christians. I don't care what nonChristians think, even if you do. It is crazy. You want Muslims informing your theology???
The context of majority isn't that they are 'always right.' Notice that it doesn't say 'is most often wrong.' The context emphasizes they are actually right most of the time and recognizes that with a caveat "not always." After that, they are then 'right' again because they can take the correction as a group. Therefore, the majority of Christians are most always right.
If the whole world believed you were God Lon, it wouldn't make it so, would it?
Reductio ad absurdum. Think of something credible. As with your odd extreme of trying to get Muslims to tell you what to believe about God and the Lord Jesus Christ, this one also isn't rational. It is building a strawman only to knock it down. Later I'll ignore this in the future and skip it as beneath me (and you).
That you think you are doing a perfect job articulating yourself.

"Random" and "vague" are two different words.
It doesn't matter, this meaningless banter....
You quoted Judgerightly's article and stated, "Another Déjà Vu. Mayhap it'll help NWL get this, coming from two different people 🤔", yet the article didn't express the point I wasn't "getting", as per your comment. I replied presuming your comment was in relation to the article you quoted, rather your comment was in relation to something completely different to what you quoted, you tried to mock me despite notion realizing you yourself were vague by your comments; I cant dumb it down much more for you, even if I were to try.

Hmm, you were talking to Judgerightly, despite the post being directed to me, and despite the fact that you didn't correctly tag his name quote in the post. Very believable. What's more believable is that you quoted his comments in a post to me in an indirect way for me to notice your comments, which in effect is a form of communication.

This comment is purely nonsensical. You tried to shame me by my usage of the word 'Greek' in regards to the LXX as if I do not know what it is, I then highlight I'm aware what the LXX is as per our previous conversation and in reply to me saying "Is your memory that bad Lon" you randomly saying "No, your reading comprehension is this bad"???? What is this meant to be in reply to? What part of my sentence? We weren't even talking about understanding context, but rather, if I knew what the LLX was as per my comment, "Both the Hebrew and the Greek of Exo 7:1 express the same thing". The irony in some of your responses. Please stop behaving like a child who does not know how to effectively communicate and instead stay on the topic of biblical exegesis.
Quit posturing.
Erm, it is a fact Exodus was written in Greek... it's called the Septugint. Oh wait, did you assume when I said written I meant originally written? If so, that is where your error lies, don't try to pin your "bad reading comprehension" on me; 'written' does not mean 'originally written'. Again, "Both the Hebrew and the Greek of Exo 7:1 express the same thing, this is a fact", my statement still stands, don't assume.

Lol, but it is a fact unless you deny the existence of the LXX.
No. Because you are poor at context, you MISSED This one and went off on a tangent. You completely missed the point because your comprehension skills are subpar. Then should I take your summations of scripture? :nono: You are found incapable and wanting and calling 'contextual rules' "ridiculous." : Plain:
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I have seen no confirmation or denial that the statement, "In 2020 Bob built a Town. All things were made by him, and without him was not anything made that was made", implies all things both inside the and outside the town were made by Bob, or only the things in the town were made by him.

I haven't seen a good reason to disregard my understanding that the words, "the beginning" to be in reference to Genesis 1:1, in light of scriptures such as 1 John 1:1, 1 John 3:8 among others, or why it's not correct to apply the context to John 1:3. At present, all you've demonstrated is that you do not apply the same rule to yourself with passages such as John 8:58.

I don't recall seeing you stating whether or not the angels are subjected to man according to Hebrews 2:7,8, in light of my recent comments?
I know you don't. You don't do context and reading comprehension very well. You'll posture, rant, cry that you do (somehow) when it is demonstrable you do not. A character assassination? No! It is YOUR inability to cogently and correctly discuss scripture. It is THE reason you and I cannot. Defending and crying about your lack will never bring us on par. You need to be 'listening' not talking at this point. You don't have the actual needed skills for this discussion.
 
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JudgeRightly

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To a trinitarian:

The trinity = three persons who are one being, namely, the Father/Son/HS.
God = three persons who are one being, namely, the Father/Son/HS.

There is no difference in the above defintion, the terms are synonymous to a trinitarian, denying it doesn't make it untrue.

I, a trinitarian, am telling you that you're wrong, and I already provided you with the definitions I accept for "God" and "Trinity."

Repeatedly asserting the above claim will not magically make it come true, no matter how many times you claim it is "undeniable."

Now, that being said, perhaps I could help you out:

A more appropriate comparison would be between "Trinity" and "Godhead."

You seem to be forgetting something, as well. Trinitarians also assert that each Member of the Godhead are Themselves the entirety of God.

I don't know how that works, how God is three Persons, as one Being, and how each Person is also the full manifestation of God, and I doubt I ever will, or maybe God will be able to explain it to me after I get to heaven.

It's something where, at least for now, I'm simply going to have to appeal to the mystery of Who and What God is, because all other options, as @Lon puts it, do damage to the rest of scripture.
 
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TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again JudgeRightly,

I am interested every now and then to drop in and look at this long running thread. I usually find much the same material, and sometimes a few different participants. I was interested in looking at some of your interaction with NWL, as I do have some common ground with him but also some major differences. NWL believes that there is One God the Father, and that our Lord Jesus Christ is the Son of God. Where I differ with NWL is that as a JW he believes in the pre-existence of Christ, either as Michael the Archangel, or another Angel. I do not believe that Jesus existed before he was conceived and born.
Trinitarians also assert that each Member of the Godhead are Themselves the entirety of God. I don't know how that works, how God is three Persons, as one Being, and how each Person is also the full manifestation of God, and I doubt I ever will, or maybe God will be able to explain it to me after I get to heaven.
I take this as a concluding summary of your position, and if it were me I would have very serious doubts that this is a true assessment of what the Bible teaches. John 1:14 reveals that Jesus fully manifested the character of God, he was full of grace and truth, but this does not make Jesus God, but the Son of God. God is the Father, and principally the father of Jesus, the only begotten of the Father. This does not make Jesus fully God.
It's something where, at least for now, I'm simply going to have to appeal to the mystery of Who and What God is, because all other options, as Lon puts it, do damage to the rest of scripture.
I suggest that it is wrong to use the term “mystery”, when applying this to something that is absolutely impossible and contradictory. I gave another option in a thread “The Yahweh Name”, and this had only a few brief responses. The thread started on May 11, 2018 and the last post was May 15,2018.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
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