Keypurr isn't a member of the Body of Christ. He is a Poor Soul.
Jesus is God !
- Thread starter beloved57
- Start date
Keypurr isn't a member of the Body of Christ. He is a Poor Soul.
keypurr
Well-known member
You believe anything. Show me the words "God the son" in scripture" or "God the Holy Spirit".
These words are not there, why do you add them?
keypurr
Well-known member
Read your verse again BR.
It proves that Jesus is the son of God that came to give us understanding about HIS GOD.
In John 17:3, the same wording is used, only true God and he is speaking to his Father.
SORRY, but that verse only proves my point. Thanks.
keypurr
Well-known member
Who made you the judge GM?
Was not judgeship given to Christ by his Father?
Worry not for me GM, I am in good hands with Christ.
Not mine, the Word of God's. ALL the others are false or anti christs.
Then by the same token show us the words you use that the son is a copy of the Father, or that He says He is NOT God?
Nobody denies that keypurr...only you deny what other scripture teaches that says He IS God as well.
John 1:18 (NIV)
Titus 2:13 presumably reveals a conceptual unity between “God” and Jesus: “of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ.”20 Much of the debate over this verse congregates around the Greek grammatical construction mentioned earlier and the application of Granville Sharp’s Rule to it. Daniel Wallace in his forthcoming book Granville Sharp’s Canon and Its Kin, concisely explains:
By way of conclusion, we are reminded of A. T. Robertson’s words: “Sharp stands vindicated after all the dust has settled.” As I began this investigation, I assumed that perhaps he was too bold, too premature in his assessment. But the evidence has shown that Robertson was right on the mark, and that Sharp’s canon has been terribly neglected and abused in the twentieth and twenty-first centuries. In the least, it ought to be resurrected as a sound principle that has overwhelming validity in all of Greek literature—when properly understood. Consequently, in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 we should at least recognize that, on a grammatical level, a heavy burden of proof rests with the one who wishes to deny that “God and Savior” refers to one person, Jesus Christ. (emphases in original)21
This issue, however, should not entirely distract us as we look at the textual evidence behind the translation of Titus 2:13. With that aside, the prior question remains, “Is the textual pedigree certain?”22 The answer is absolutely, “Yes!”23 This assessment still has its foes, but most grammarians, like Wallace, state that this text clearly indicates that one person is in view. (The only possible variant in it concerns the order of the last two words: “Jesus Christ” or “Christ Jesus.”) To my knowledge, not one jot or tittle ever has been penned against its textual certainty, making Titus 2:13 an explicit reference to Jesus as “God,” as it reads: “of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ.”
excerpt from: http://www.equip.org/article/jesus-as-god/
By way of conclusion, we are reminded of A. T. Robertson’s words: “Sharp stands vindicated after all the dust has settled.” As I began this investigation, I assumed that perhaps he was too bold, too premature in his assessment. But the evidence has shown that Robertson was right on the mark, and that Sharp’s canon has been terribly neglected and abused in the twentieth and twenty-first centuries. In the least, it ought to be resurrected as a sound principle that has overwhelming validity in all of Greek literature—when properly understood. Consequently, in Titus 2:13 and 2 Pet 1:1 we should at least recognize that, on a grammatical level, a heavy burden of proof rests with the one who wishes to deny that “God and Savior” refers to one person, Jesus Christ. (emphases in original)21
This issue, however, should not entirely distract us as we look at the textual evidence behind the translation of Titus 2:13. With that aside, the prior question remains, “Is the textual pedigree certain?”22 The answer is absolutely, “Yes!”23 This assessment still has its foes, but most grammarians, like Wallace, state that this text clearly indicates that one person is in view. (The only possible variant in it concerns the order of the last two words: “Jesus Christ” or “Christ Jesus.”) To my knowledge, not one jot or tittle ever has been penned against its textual certainty, making Titus 2:13 an explicit reference to Jesus as “God,” as it reads: “of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ.”
excerpt from: http://www.equip.org/article/jesus-as-god/
Your ignorance places you in a bad way, I'm afraid! You deny
the Deity of Christ Himself.
keypurr
Well-known member
keypurr
Well-known member
When scripture contradicts itself, we must study to see why.
Jesus Christ tells us that his Father is the ONLY TRUE GOD.
Keep that in mind when you look at the other verses. Either scripture is wrong, we are not seeing what is being said or someone is not truthful and deceptive.
You sure have some strange beliefs that you made up.
keypurr
Well-known member
If Christ was God, why did he say all power is given to me by my father?
Why did he need to grow in wisdom?
Why did he pray to his Father.
Why does he not know when he will return?
Why did he come to earth as he stated that he did not want to come.
GM why do you not ask these questions?
Is your intellectual level so low that you do not know enough to ask questions?
People who live in a glass house should not throw stones friend.
it does NOT ever contradict itself except when you read it.
Jesus also said He WAS the father.
I guess if you don't know the actual meaning of creation you would say that, but as creations comes from NOTHING, and The Word always was, He wasn't created and neither are humans. They are born.
keypurr
Well-known member
keypurr
Well-known member
Keypurr, your lack of understanding in the most basic of Biblical concepts is appalling and frightening to say the least. How old did you say you are?
God created the universe. ALL life procreates which is HOW He created them.
God creates something from nothing and man procreates something from something.
John 1:3 (NIV) Col 1:16 (NIV)
oatmeal
Well-known member
Really?
Titus 1:4 makes a clear distinction between
1. God the Father
2. the lord Jesus Christ our savior.
This is expressed in this verse by the word "and"
That distinction is made in many verses
I Timothy 2:5, Acts 2:22, Acts 10:38
Galatians 1:1,3,4,4:4,6, Ephesians 4:5-6
II Corinthians 4:6,1:2
John 10:30 in context
Acts 2:34
Colossians 1:2 etc.
God and Jesus are not identical.
God is God and Jesus is the son of God.
Yes, and I cited the site. This is NOT my comment, it is Dr. Wallace's and Granville Sharp's...two preeminent Greek scholars of today and yesterday.
It is about Titus 2:13 and the use of 'and' in Greek. As you have NO credentials in this regard, your denial is just that...denial. No substance...no fact.
I agree that Titus 1:4 is clear, IF you don't read it with an EISEGETICAL eye, like YOU do.