Zakath
Resident Atheist
“Does Absolute Morality Exist?
Zakath’s post #4
Knight’s previous response demonstrates his unwillingness, possibly his inability, to address the primary question of the debate as he chooses to attack the relativist position, hoping to prove his position by default. Unfortunately he fails, and I will continue to bring him back to his burden: prove that absolute morality exists. It is only in doing so that he will disprove my position.
Knight then goes on to attempt to subvert a relativist’s ability to determine whether or not someone else’s viewpoint is right or wrong. To a great extent that is the crux of the argument of one whose moral and religious views appear rooted in attacking the beliefs and practices of others as “wrong”. Knight must believe in absolute right or wrong or he has no basis upon which to feel superior to, and to attack others.
Knight intones his final (ultimate?) pronouncement on the subject,
When will Knight prove the existence of absolute morality?
As nearly as I can tell, we’re still waiting for proof…
Knight then attempts to play James Randi, famous (or infamous) debunker of the paranormal, by asserting that I am playing a trick on the readers when I illustrate that some moral examples might be viewed as good or evil, depending on the viewpoint. I hate to disappoint our readers, but this is no trick, it is merely providing examples of why relativistic morality is such a common viewpoint. Knight, as with many of his religious fundamentalist brethren, appears to be searching for a simple universe where answers are all binary (yes or no, black or white). No matter how much he wishes to believe otherwise, the real world in which he and I live is full of doubt, uncertainty, and gray areas. Relativists did not create the “almost limitless amount of counter examples”, we merely point a few of them out to illustrate the point that if there is a single example where an allegedly “absolute” point or belief is not true, then it is not absolute.
After all his “counter examples”, I still wonder when will Knight prove the existence of absolute morality?
At the end of my previous post, I asked Knight to provide one or more examples of what he considered absolute morality. He kindly provides the examples of “murder” and “rape”. Now that we have two examples to discuss, I had assumed that he would describe the authority upon which he based his assertion that these wrongs are “absolute”. Notice that he did not do so. He immediately attempted to steer the discussion away from his need to prove his point by playing a few tricks of his own…
Knight engages in his own two timeworn tricks: playing with definitions of words, and trying to maneuver his opponent into accept the opposing viewpoint without having to provide a convincing argument.
First, Knight hedges his answer by hinting at a limiting definition, without providing the definition himself.
My response to Knight’s first “trick” is: Knight, please explain what you mean by “properly defined” in your response to my previous question. To be more explicit: Since they are your examples, provide your definitions of the words “murder” and “rape”.
Second, Knight then asks his opponent, an admitted moral relativist, to accept a morally absolute premise. He writes:
While I agree that the German Holocaust was wrong, I cannot speak to the absoluteness of what I consider a crime against my fellow human beings.
Knight leaft me with two questions to answer.
Knight, at this juncture, has two tasks:
1. Provide his “proper” definitions of “rape” and “murder” so we can all be discussing from the same perspective.
2. Provide some authority for his assertions that what he defines as “rape” and “murder” are actually absolutes and not merely relative.
Zakath’s post #4
Knight’s previous response demonstrates his unwillingness, possibly his inability, to address the primary question of the debate as he chooses to attack the relativist position, hoping to prove his position by default. Unfortunately he fails, and I will continue to bring him back to his burden: prove that absolute morality exists. It is only in doing so that he will disprove my position.
Knight appears to be so totally indoctrinated into his absolutist view of morals and ethics that appears to miss his own point here. After describing his “determining factor” as relative, he then castigates me for choosing a relative stance on the question of moral right or wrong. But, as I remind him, I am a relativist. As such, it is my prerogative to choose the morals or ethics that agree with what I think are right or wrong…... in a relativistic view of morality, the determining factor of what is morally right or morally wrong is RELATIVE to the individual, society or government (which Zakath fully admits). Yet Zakath has now admitted that he often rejects what has been determined right or wrong relative to individuals, societies and governments. A TRUE moral relativist would be forced to (at very least) admit that ANY morality is "as good" or "as right" as any other moral standard.
Knight then goes on to attempt to subvert a relativist’s ability to determine whether or not someone else’s viewpoint is right or wrong. To a great extent that is the crux of the argument of one whose moral and religious views appear rooted in attacking the beliefs and practices of others as “wrong”. Knight must believe in absolute right or wrong or he has no basis upon which to feel superior to, and to attack others.
Knight intones his final (ultimate?) pronouncement on the subject,
This interestingly enough draws us, round about, to the initial point of the debate:”Ultimately, moral relativism or moral subjectivism fails due to the almost limitless amount of counter examples.”
When will Knight prove the existence of absolute morality?
As nearly as I can tell, we’re still waiting for proof…
Knight then attempts to play James Randi, famous (or infamous) debunker of the paranormal, by asserting that I am playing a trick on the readers when I illustrate that some moral examples might be viewed as good or evil, depending on the viewpoint. I hate to disappoint our readers, but this is no trick, it is merely providing examples of why relativistic morality is such a common viewpoint. Knight, as with many of his religious fundamentalist brethren, appears to be searching for a simple universe where answers are all binary (yes or no, black or white). No matter how much he wishes to believe otherwise, the real world in which he and I live is full of doubt, uncertainty, and gray areas. Relativists did not create the “almost limitless amount of counter examples”, we merely point a few of them out to illustrate the point that if there is a single example where an allegedly “absolute” point or belief is not true, then it is not absolute.
After all his “counter examples”, I still wonder when will Knight prove the existence of absolute morality?
At the end of my previous post, I asked Knight to provide one or more examples of what he considered absolute morality. He kindly provides the examples of “murder” and “rape”. Now that we have two examples to discuss, I had assumed that he would describe the authority upon which he based his assertion that these wrongs are “absolute”. Notice that he did not do so. He immediately attempted to steer the discussion away from his need to prove his point by playing a few tricks of his own…
Knight engages in his own two timeworn tricks: playing with definitions of words, and trying to maneuver his opponent into accept the opposing viewpoint without having to provide a convincing argument.
First, Knight hedges his answer by hinting at a limiting definition, without providing the definition himself.
Note his use of the words “when properly defined”. He clearly intends a specific definition of the words “rape” and “murder”, yet does not provide them, preferring to leave the defining of his own examples to his opponent. If his opponent were foolish enough to provide a definition, Knight will rush in, proclaiming that his opponent did not understand the point and ridicule him.Murder and rape, when properly defined are both absolutely wrong. (Emphasis mine – Z)
My response to Knight’s first “trick” is: Knight, please explain what you mean by “properly defined” in your response to my previous question. To be more explicit: Since they are your examples, provide your definitions of the words “murder” and “rape”.
Second, Knight then asks his opponent, an admitted moral relativist, to accept a morally absolute premise. He writes:
Unfortunately that’s a bit like a completely colorblind person who sees the world only in black and white asking a normally sighted individual to agree that color doesn’t exist…I can determine that was murder and therefore absolutely wrong…Can you make that same determination Zakath?
While I agree that the German Holocaust was wrong, I cannot speak to the absoluteness of what I consider a crime against my fellow human beings.
Knight leaft me with two questions to answer.
To answer the first, I need to wait upon his definition of the term. As for the second, it is moot. Since I am a moral relativist, he already knows the answer.QUESTION FOR ZAKATH:
Is there such a thing as rape? And if so, is raping a woman absolutely wrong or just wrong relative to you?
Knight, at this juncture, has two tasks:
1. Provide his “proper” definitions of “rape” and “murder” so we can all be discussing from the same perspective.
2. Provide some authority for his assertions that what he defines as “rape” and “murder” are actually absolutes and not merely relative.