Of course i do, when anything seems off, since it was given in hebrew. Why do you think you made a case when i said lets look at it and you refused to give anything you want to look at?I think my case is made since even you look to ancient Hebrew
rather than rely on say the KJV or apparently want to suggest that another commonly used version is inerrant.
Why should i rely on a mans translation of the original when something seems suspect, its better to go the source.
Is eating seafood without fins and scales really wrong or just an interpretation by an unknown scribe?
It was really wrong before God cleansed it - but still not wrong the same level as homosexual sex is wrong, it was not a sin unto death to eat shellfish.
This might help you if you are actually interested in the truth and how the 2 are not remotely the same nor is even the same word used in Hebrew that was translated abomination in the kjv in both instances:
Why eating shrimps is not like homosexuality