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Yes, we are not Israelite's under the law waiting for an earthly kingdom.Was the message John preached in 1 John different than the message God intends modern Christians to apply to their lives?
Yes, we are not Israelite's under the law waiting for an earthly kingdom.Was the message John preached in 1 John different than the message God intends modern Christians to apply to their lives?
I don't understand how John could possibly have been preaching to Jews in 1 John that could not be saved like Gentiles are saved.Yes, we are not Israelite's under the law waiting for an earthly kingdom.
Well, it isn't what I say, but it is what the Bible says.You say there are some believers who must endure to the end in order to be saved, like Noah holding to the outside of the ark in order to be saved from judgment? That sounds like God will judge them on their works, not on their faith.
You know that the Jews are God's chosen people. They knew God and believed in Him, but what so many Jews failed to accept was Jesus Christ as the Promised Messiah. The Jews had been given the Law and the Covenants and the Promises, and their salvation was to be received when they were IN their Kingdom with Christ seated on the throne. That is future.I don't understand how John could possibly have been preaching to Jews in 1 John that could not be saved like Gentiles are saved.
I was a lost sinner when I first read it, so yes, John was preaching to me.Let me ask again. Was John preaching to lost sinners in 1 John when he said "If we say we have no sin (he did not say "if we say we had no sin") we deceive ourselves?
The sin makes them unworthy.What makes a sinner "unworthy" of eternal life" Drunkenness? Smoking? Gambling?
I disagree.Says who? Not the Bible.
It is our responsibility, and within our power, to obey Paul's exhortation.The point is that Paul did NOT say "you are incapable of sinning" but rather "don't let sin reign in your bodies."
It is if one has been baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins after they have repented of sin.Just because you don't let it reign in your body doesn't mean it's been purged from your body.
Speak for yourself.But we are not sinless.
If one commits sin, they are a sinner.We are no longer identified as "Sinner."
As there is no sin "in Christ' those "in Christ" cannot have sin on them either.We are identified with Christ.
But that doesn't even REMOTELY imply that we are "without sin"
You may not believe Rom 6:3-7, but it is true.Wrong.
It's called "the flesh." Again, last I checked, you're still alive.
I am dead, as I have faith that the word of God is true in Rom 6:3-7.Paul said those who are dead are freed from sin.
You're not dead yet, therefore you're not freed from sin.
Why won't you do that then?He then said "CONSIDER yourselves freed from sin," because in Christ we are alive to God.
I guess the proof of that is in the pudding.But he's not talking about our bodies, he's talking about our spirits.
I was killed many years ago with Christ at my "immersion" into His death and burial.He then goes even further later on:
Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives? - Romans 7:1 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans7:1&version=NKJV
Remember, you're not dead yet.
That is Paul's narrative of life under the Law, and in the flesh instead of in the Spirit. (Rom 7:5)For what I am doing, I do not understand. For what I will to do, that I do not practice; but what I hate, that I do.If, then, I do what I will not to do, I agree with the law that it is good.But now, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me.For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells; for to will is present with me, but how to perform what is good I do not find.For the good that I will to do, I do not do; but the evil I will not to do, that I practice.Now if I do what I will not to do, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me.I find then a law, that evil is present with me, the one who wills to do good.For I delight in the law of God according to the inward man.But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members.O wretched man that I am! Who will deliver me from this body of death?I thank God—through Jesus Christ our Lord! So then, with the mind I myself serve the law of God, but with the flesh the law of sin. - Romans 7:15-25 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans7:15-25&version=NKJV
Too bad you can't have faith in what is written in Rom 6, and elsewhere.Sin dwells in the flesh. We are not freed from the flesh. Our Spirits are freed from the law, yes, but our flesh has yet to be glorified. So while we're on earth, we have to put up with the flesh, and therefore sin, because sin dwells in the flesh.
I thank God I believed that...when I called on the name of the Lord Jesus Christ at my baptism in that name for the remission of my past sins. (Acts 2:38, 22:16)Not if they've Romans 10:9'ed.
that if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. - Romans 10:9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans10:9&version=NKJV
Paul isn't the liar, it is the folks who say that Jesus is their Lord but still serve other master that are the liars.That's a guarantee. Or are you calling Paul a liar?
It isn't "off" per-se, but the context makes it seem "off'.So the wording of 1 John 7 is slightly off in your opinion? Should the passage have been written, "If we walk in the light as he is in the light, then the blood of Jesus must have already cleansed us from sin."?
Both verses address those who walk in darkness, but you are correct about the "never sinned in my life" interpretation.Verse 10 says "if we say we have not sinned we make him a liar." Let's assume that simply means if we say we never sinned before we were saved then we are lying. But verse 8 says "if we say we have no sin" we err. Notice the wording. The passage does not say "if we say we had no sin" as if the verse is intended to refer to our past. The verse does not refer to our past but to our present.
The comma between "...fellowship one with another, and the blood..." Should have been a period.Let's look at this again. Verse 7 says if we walk in the light Jesus's blood cleanses us from sin. It does not say if we walk in the light then Jesus' blood must have already cleansed us from sin beforehand.
Your John 6:66 verse is OT, and we are now in the NT.If walking in the light is essential to salvation what happens to those who walk with Jesus at first but then walk no longer with Him?
John 6:66
From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.
Verse 3 would have been better interpreted if the "babes" part had been before the "carnal" part.What about babes in Christ? Do they always do those things that please the Father? No.
1 Corinthians 3
3 And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, even as unto babes in Christ.
2 I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able.
3 For ye are yet carnal: for whereas there is among you envying, and strife, and divisions, are ye not carnal, and walk as men?
Really, in spite of the flames above the heads of the disciples on the day of Pentecost and their ability to speak foreign languages?God gave many signs to Jews but He declares that signs shall have no part in the preaching of the Cross to modern sinners.
The kingdom gospel...Jesus preached over and over again that "the kingdom of God is come near you".If you guys would just accept that John and the other disciples were preaching the Kingdom gospel and not the gospel of grace, you'd stop with this back and forth that has nothing to do with you.
Where is the faith in someone who murders, lies, steals, and commits adultery?You say there are some believers who must endure to the end in order to be saved, like Noah holding to the outside of the ark in order to be saved from judgment? That sounds like God will judge them on their works, not on their faith.
I am not convinced that you understand what is meant by "endureth to the end." Does that mean "remaining sinless until the end?" I see no justification for such an interpretation.Well, it isn't what I say, but it is what the Bible says.
Faith and works have been required in every dispensation I can think of......except those who are saved by Paul's gospel, which is faith alone.
It isn't that the works saved them, but that they were required by God. The Kingdom believers must endure to the end in order to have their sins blotted out. Our Lords states it here and Peter explains in Acts 3 below.
Matt. 10:22 And ye shall be hated of all men for my name's sake: but he that endureth to the end shall be saved.
Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord; And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you: Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.
Acts 3:19-21
I am not following you. You seem to be suggesting that Gentiles could be saved and have all their sins removed immediately forever but that no Jew could. I have never seen anything in the Bible to suggest more than one way to heaven.You know that the Jews are God's chosen people. They knew God and believed in Him, but what so many Jews failed to accept was Jesus Christ as the Promised Messiah. The Jews had been given the Law and the Covenants and the Promises, and their salvation was to be received when they were IN their Kingdom with Christ seated on the throne. That is future.
Remember, to whom much has been given, much is expected.
Luke 12:47 And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. 48 But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more.
Romans 3:1-2 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
The gentiles, on the other hand, merely had to believe Paul's gospel of grace unto salvation.
What does the verse say?I was a lost sinner when I first read it, so yes, John was preaching to me.
The letter is to the converted. It is about, in part, the unconverted.
It is also about, in part, the converted.
John gives us the means to determine who is actually converted.
If one is walking in darkness, sin, they are not converted.
If one is walking in the light, God, they are converted.
Sin makes them unworthy? What sin? Like Peter's sin of denying the Lord Jesus? When do you think Peter got saved? After he was baptized? Did he never sin after he was baptized? Wasn't Peter a Jew? Is it true he would never have been delivered from sin on this earth and only saved in the world to come if he endured unto the end, whatever that means?The sin makes them unworthy.
Verse 8 of 1 John says "have no sin"What does the verse say?
1. "If we say we had no sin," or
2. "If we say we have no sin"?
Alternating audiences? I cannot see that. It seems you are straining very hard to fit a bad doctrine into harmonizing context with Biblical truth when it doesn't fit.It isn't "off" per-se, but the context makes it seem "off'.
If you look at 1 John 1:5-10 as an address to those in darkness alternating with an address to those in the light it makes perfect sense.
A,B-A,B-A,B.
5,6-7,8,-9,10.
Light,-dark, light,-dark, light-darkness.
Both verses address those who walk in darkness, but you are correct about the "never sinned in my life" interpretation.
It is written..."The way of the wicked is as darkness..." (Pro 4:19)
The comma between "...fellowship one with another, and the blood..." Should have been a period.
John is adding a second thought to the verse.
Your John 6:66 verse is OT, and we are now in the NT.
In the OT, men came and went as their level of faith compelled them.
In the NT we have the exact definition of who is actually born of God and who isn't.
1 John 3:9-10..."Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
10 In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother."
If one is reborn of God's seed, they cannot bring forth the fruit of the devil.
Like the parables about grapes from thistles and figs from vines...it can't happen.
Verse 3 would have been better interpreted if the "babes" part had been before the "carnal" part.
This was actually meant as an insult, (perhaps too strong of a word), to the Corinthians...like a jab in the ribs to get with the program.
He couldn't yet talk to them as Spiritually based men because they acted as if they still walked in the flesh.
I thank you for providing the scriptures you have questions about.
Any sin.Sin makes them unworthy? What sin?
Yes.Like Peter's sin of denying the Lord Jesus?
The Jews had the atonements of the Law for their sins.When do you think Peter got saved? After he was baptized? Did he never sin after he was baptized? Wasn't Peter a Jew? Is it true he would never have been delivered from sin on this earth and only saved in the world to come if he endured unto the end, whatever that means?
"Have no sin" refers to the present. "Had no sin" refers to the past.Verse 8 of 1 John says "have no sin"
Verse 10 says "have not sinned".
I'm sorry you can't see it.Alternating audiences? I cannot see that. It seems you are straining very hard to fit a bad doctrine into harmonizing context with Biblical truth when it doesn't fit.