If there are two gospels, did Paul preach one to the Jews and a different one to the Gentiles?
What?
No! I don't understand the question. Why would Paul have preached the Kingdom Gospel?
Two Apostleships, Two Gospels! (Gal. 2:9)
But Israel had been cut off when Paul showed up on the scene. The Kingdom Gospel was no longer valid unless you had already come to faith while that Gospel was in effect.
I Corinthians 7:17 But as God has distributed to each one, as the Lord has called each one, so let him walk. And so I ordain in all the churches. 18 Was anyone called while circumcised? Let him not become uncircumcised. Was anyone called while uncircumcised? Let him not be circumcised.
Why does it need to be different? What do Jews and Gentiles need?
Rom. 3:9 What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin;
This is the Gospel of Grace!
The paradigm is getting in the way here. You are interpreting Paul's message as though there was no Jew or Gentile, which was accurate at the time Romans was written but that had not always been the case! Before Paul there WAS a distinction between Jew and Gentile. Before Paul, Gentiles had to become Jews.
Who says they didn't. Very little is mentioned in the bible about the travels of the 12 but history shows that they went to locations throughout the world and worked there locally. No need to send letters. Paul traveled.
WHAT ARE YOU TALKING ABOUT?
How many times has Gal. 2:9 been quoted on this thread?
By the way, have you ever noticed who the non-Pauline letters are addressed to?
Hebrews - The title of the letter makes this one sort of obvious.
James - "James, a bondservant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ,
To the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad: Greeting.
Peter - Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ,
To the pilgrims of the Dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia
II Peter 3:1 Beloved, I now write to you this second epistle...
John - To the elect lady [Israel] and her children...
Jude - Brother of James (& Jesus) addressed to the same audience as II Peter as basically half of the epistle is essentially a quotation of Peter's epistle and addresses the same issue.
Revelation - Notice in Revelation 3:9 "Indeed I will make those of the synagogue of Satan, who say they are Jews and are not,...". Additionally, throughout the book Jesus is referred to as the Lamb, (a reference to Passover) and as the "Lion of the tribe of Judah, the Root of David" and if that wasn't enough Chapter 7 seals it (pun intended) as a book about Israel.
I see this as the root of the disagreement. What is need for change of law?
I'm not following you here.
Yes, Peter was given the keys and was offering them the kingdom. The kingdom is spiritual and with the keys Peter let 3,000 in on that day.
Acts 2:41 So then, those who had received his word were baptized; and that day there were added about three thousand souls.
Souls were added to the spiritual kingdom.
John 18:6 Jesus answered, "My kingdom is not of this world. If My kingdom were of this world, then My servants would be fighting so that I would not be handed over to the Jews; but as it is, My kingdom is not of this realm."
This is the typical response I've heard a thousand times but it doesn't say the souls were added "to the spiritual kingdom", that's your doctrinal addition. And your John 18 reference implies that God never had any intention of giving Israel am earthly kingdom at all. Is this what you believe?
What makes you think it's corporately?
It's not the children of the flesh but the children of promise that is true Israel.
Rom. 9:8 That is, it is not the children of the flesh who are children of God, but the children of the promise are regarded as descendants.
Are you not a child of God?
You are mixing dispensations again. Look, you cannot argue the veracity of your doctrine paradigm by making arguments that presuppose the veracity of your doctrinal paradigm. That's called begging the question.
Romans 9 would never ever ever never been preached by a soul prior to Paul!
Further, Paul is talking about those members of the nation of Israel who where believers! Romans 9 is about Israel having been cut off and why. Paul is saying that while Israel had been cut off corporately, God did not cut off those who had believed prior to the nation itself being cut off. In other words, God didn't cut off Peter, James, John or their coverts. He was NOT saying that Gentiles are now spiritual Jews! Paul would never had said such a thing.
Yes, that's why they killed him. They wanted him to defeat the Romans and all their enemies but he came to fix the real problem. Sin.
Again you suggest that Israel does not have an Earthly kingdom promised to them. Is this really what you believe?
Yes, 3,000 repented and were converted on Pentecost and had their sins forgiven and received the Holy Spirit.
This fulfillment of prophecy was about Israel, Turbosixx! I don't understand how you could not have understood my point. The events of Acts 2 didn't just happen on some random meaningless Thursday afternoon. They happened on Pentecost - a JEWISH feast day - the very next feast day after First Fruits which had also be fulfilled on the exact day of the feast. Acts 2
CANNOT be when God cut off Israel!
This single point alone truly defeats Acts 2 Dispensationalism. If there was any dispensational change at all it MUST have taken place at some point after Acts 2 because the fulfillment of the Feast of Pentecost is proof that Israel's prophesied program was still fully on track at the close of Acts 2.
Resting in Him,
Clete