ECT How is Paul's message different?

turbosixx

New member
The question I have about the "baptism of repentance for the remission of sins" is:

Are a person's sins taken away when he submits to that baptism today?

Where Paul's?
Acts 22:16 And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name.’
 

lifeisgood

New member
Jesus instructed the 12 to make disciples by baptizing them in his name. Peter baptized believers in the name of Jesus. If Paul received the gospel from Jesus and not man, where did he get baptizing believers "in the name of" Jesus?

They had been baptized with the baptism preached by John the Baptist? :idunno:

These were already called 'disciples' were they not? Yes, they were.
They appeared to be part of the company of Christians? Yes, they were. Which would not be said of non-Christians.

Had they been baptized 'in the name of Jesus' yet? I do not think so.

So, Paul, in accordance with the Gospel to the circumcision, baptized them (again) but now in the name of Jesus.

After they were now baptized 'in the name of Jesus', Paul laid hands on them and they were filled with the Holy Spirit.

One thing I can say for sure, Paul perceived they lacked the Holy Spirit in their lives.
 

whitestone

Well-known member
I agree it's talking about the old law. I believe they appear as following the law to appease the Jews just as Paul did with Timothy. Paul has always agreed to what James has said, 15 & 21. If "do not follow" the law is what they needed to hear, why didn't Paul stand up and say it? He had every chance to do so. I believe the reason he didn't was so that they wouldn't shut their ears and that in time they will come to understand.

When did the Jews and Gentiles become on body so as to be under the same law?


He did Acts 15:2 KJV then in Galatians 2:11-13 he speaks of the same again. In Galatians 2:10 Paul also mentions another thing "remember the poor",thats not in the letter of the "things that were reduced".lol as some say.
 

turbosixx

New member
He did Acts 15:2 KJV then in Galatians 2:11-13 he speaks of the same again. In Galatians 2:10 Paul also mentions another thing "remember the poor",thats not in the letter of the "things that were reduced".lol as some say.

I'm not getting your point. What I see is Paul doing the same thing as James when in the same situations. Paul is in agreement with James and the other apostles.
 

whitestone

Well-known member
I'm not getting your point. What I see is Paul doing the same thing as James when in the same situations. Paul is in agreement with James and the other apostles.


If they were discussing the NC as you think why are the circumcision and the uncircumcision told two different things? Where did the things in the list(letter in Acts 15) come from is it Leviticus 17,18 or the Noahide law where did it come from?
 

turbosixx

New member
They had been baptized with the baptism preached by John the Baptist? :idunno:

These were already called 'disciples' were they not? Yes, they were.
They appeared to be part of the company of Christians? Yes, they were. Which would not be said of non-Christians.

Had they been baptized 'in the name of Jesus' yet? I do not think so.

So, Paul, in accordance with the Gospel to the circumcision, baptized them (again) but now in the name of Jesus.

After they were now baptized 'in the name of Jesus', Paul laid hands on them and they were filled with the Holy Spirit.

One thing I can say for sure, Paul perceived they lacked the Holy Spirit in their lives.

That is the way I understand it with one exception. If Paul was not sent to baptize and baptism is not part of the gospel he received, why did he do it? Where these people added to the body?
 

Right Divider

Body part
Jesus instructed the 12 to make disciples by baptizing them in his name.
Show us the scripture that says that "Jesus instructed the 12 to make disciples by baptizing them in his name."

Matt 28:19-20 (AKJV/PCE)
(28:19) ¶ Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: (28:20) Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, [even] unto the end of the world. Amen.

That is in the name of the FATHER, AND OF THE SON, AND OF THE HOLY GHOST.

Note that Jesus ALSO told them to teach them to observe ALL THINGS WHATSOEVER I HAVE COMMANDED YOU! That includes the LAW!
 

turbosixx

New member
told two different things?
I'm not aware of the circumcision being told to follow the law. Yes they are from the old law. The things in the letter to the Gentiles are from the Holy Spirit and the apostles. Paul is in full agreement and delivers it himself.
 

lifeisgood

New member
Yes, and when were his sins forgiven?. My question is, were Paul's sins forgiven by being baptized? If not, please tell me how.

You've got to be kidding me.

Let's see... when were your sins forgiven? When you felt the pull of the Holy Spirit in your heart and you said 'yes, Lord' or when you were dunked in water?

Last time I checked it is by grace through faith alone.
 

musterion

Well-known member
They had been baptized with the baptism preached by John the Baptist? :idunno:

These were already called 'disciples' were they not? Yes, they were.
They appeared to be part of the company of Christians? Yes, they were. Which would not be said of non-Christians.

Had they been baptized 'in the name of Jesus' yet? I do not think so.

So, Paul, in accordance with the Gospel to the circumcision, baptized them (again) but now in the name of Jesus.

After they were now baptized 'in the name of Jesus', Paul laid hands on them and they were filled with the Holy Spirit.

One thing I can say for sure, Paul perceived they lacked the Holy Spirit in their lives.


I tend to agree with Stam's take on it, based on the fact that there's no quotation marks in Greek. Put (sort of) into modern paragraph form, it'd look like this (Paul in red, them in blue):

And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples, he said unto them, "Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed?"
And they said unto him, "We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost."
And he said unto them, "Unto what then were ye baptized?"
And they said,
"Unto John's baptism."
Then said Paul, "John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus. When they heard, they were baptized [by John] in the name of the Lord Jesus."
And when Paul had laid hands upon them [these twelve guys], the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied. And all the men were about twelve.


This works for me for three reasons.

1. This reading aligns perfectly with Paul's insistence that he was NOT sent to baptize.

2. John indeed baptized "the people" in the name of (by the authority of) the Lord Jesus, Who was coming right behind him. These guys had been water baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus...by John, not by Paul.

3. If Paul water baptized these guys, then they got the same water baptism TWICE, which makes no sense and would be something completely without precedent under the Kingdom program from the four gospels onward.

Saying Paul water baptized these guys creates far more problems than it solves.
 

lifeisgood

New member
Saying Paul water baptized these guys creates far more problems than it solves.

Even though not said as clearly as you said, I tend to think it the same way as when the Bible says that 'Jesus baptized' which He didn't.

I do not believe that Paul himself was the one dunking people in water. He himself said that he had only baptized a very few people.
 

musterion

Well-known member
Put another way...Jews were baptized by John in expectation of Christ's soon appearance. They repented and were washed in advance of His arrival, like the bride made ready, without spot, awaiting the Groom.

So what possible purpose would Paul water baptizing them serve, since they'd already received John's baptism that fitted them for Christ's arrival?

That's a question I've yet to see answered by people who say these guys were water baptized (twice), the second time by Paul or at Paul's direction.

 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
And they never did it.

Did Christ lie, or were they disobedient failures? Do you know the answer?


They did do it, and those who followed and follow Christ have continued to do the same.

You have no intention of doing anything because you do not believe and obey Him, and He knows that so until you repent He will not send you.

LA
 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Put another way...Jews were baptized by John in expectation of Christ's soon appearance. They repented and were washed in advance of His arrival, like the bride made ready, without spot, awaiting the Groom.

So what possible purpose would Paul water baptizing them serve, since they'd already received John's baptism that fitted them for Christ's arrival?

That's a question I've yet to see answered by people who say these guys were water baptized (twice), the second time by Paul or at Paul's direction.


Johns baptism was one of repentance and temporary like crossing the red sea under Moses, but Peters and Pauls baptism was the Jordan crossing into the Kingdom of God.

Paul taught the disciples of John the same thing at Ephesus and Paul baptized them in water into Christ and they became filled with the Holy Spirit, which never occurred at Johns baptism except for Jesus Himself whose baptism was not one of repentance.

Act 19:2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.
Act 19:3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
Act 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Act 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

LA
 

DAN P

Well-known member
I tend to agree with Stam's take on it, based on the fact that there's no quotation marks in Greek. Put (sort of) into modern paragraph form, it'd look like this (Paul in red, them in blue):




This works for me for three reasons.

1. This reading aligns perfectly with Paul's insistence that he was NOT sent to baptize.

2. John indeed baptized "the people" in the name of (by the authority of) the Lord Jesus, Who was coming right behind him. These guys had been water baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus...by John, not by Paul.

3. If Paul water baptized these guys, then they got the same water baptism TWICE, which makes no sense and would be something completely without precedent under the Kingdom program from the four gospels onward.

Saying Paul water baptized these guys creates far more problems than it solves.


Hi and there is no WATER / HUDOR in Acts 19:1-6 and are not understands these verses !

#1 , In verse 2 , since having believed , did you receive the Holy Spirit ?

#2 , They response was , whether there is Holy Spirit !!

#3 For what reason , then were you Baptized ??

#4 Why ? They were to be Kings and Priests in the Millennium , they did not know Rev 1:6 !!

#5, In verse 4 Paul said , John indeed BAPTISMA , which means John was a BAPTIZER , because that is what BAPTISMA means !!

#6 , John did a BAPTISM / BAPTISMA , with a WATER BAPTISM OF REPENTANCE , that is on the coming one Jesus !!

#7 Then Paul in verse 6 Paul laid his hands on them and they received the Holy Spirit came upon them and were SPEAKING in Languages and Prophesying as those on the Day of Pentecost !!

#8 Paul never laid a drop of WATER / HUDOR on them at all !!

dan p
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
It doesn't tell us exactly when it happened. But it couldn't have happened until Israel was temporarily cast aside and I believe that happened at Acts 7 with the stoning Stephen at Acts 7.





Israel wasn't cast aside. Races were. Anyone from any race can believe and be "in". Anyone from any race can not believe and be

As soon as you get ride of the race/nation category you will see the NT.
 
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