According to God's testimony of himself in the Bible, on the first page, why did he bring the animals to Adam?
That's readily apparent if your theology doesn't get in the way...:
Gen 2:18 The LORD God also said, “It is not good for the man to be alone. I will make for him a suitable helper.”
19 And out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field and every bird of the air, and He brought them to the man to see what he would name each one. And whatever the man called each living creature, that was its name. 20The man gave names to all the livestock, to the birds of the air, and to every beast of the field. But for Adam no suitable helper was found.
Verse 18 says straight out that HE brought the animals to Adam to fix a part of HIS creation, to make a lo tov (not good) become a meod tov (very good)... So in Gen 1:31 when HE declared all to be very good, it had already been repaired...
And the badness HE had to fix was that Adam needed a suitable helper... So, if GOD does not create that which is not perfect then there must have been a fall into not goodness and that must have been because Adam became a sinner, rebellious to GOD's will, before coming into the garden. [This is not proof Adam was sinful when placed into the garden but it can be seen as a hint* described at the end of this letter.]
Please consider Adam's actions to see just how good he was doing in the garden before Eve tempted him:
Genesis 2:18 also says straight out that Adam was
alone in the omnipresent GOD's garden but how could he be alone if he was innnocent and with his God?
Of course, this is not irrefutable proof Adam was a sinner in the garden because it is possible to interpret
alone so that it means “
unable to produce children,” rather than “s
eparated in spirit from GOD like after a big fall.”
Genesis 2:18 also says that GOD had to make an “
help meet”, (NIV -
suitable helper), to fix Adam's bad (
lo tov) situation, but this is not irrefutable proof either because it is possible to interpret “helper” so that it means “reproductive partner” rather than “someone who would be instrumental in convicting Adam of his spiritual rebellion.”
And “suitable” is not irrefutable proof of his sinfulness either, because it too can be interpreted as meaning “
better than any animal” rather than “
because Adam had already rejected GOD, someone else whom he would accept as a marriage partner so that he could learn about his spiritual marriage to HIM”.
First of all, it is possible for Adam to be in only one of the three moral states. He could only be:
1. in conformity with GOD's will (good, faithful, righteous); or
2. innocent (not good - not bad, morally untested - hence, undecided); or,
3. in opposition to GOD's will (faithless, bad, unrighteous)].
Now it stands to reason that if we can eliminate two of these, Adam would have to be in the third one [moral state] right?
This being the case, let's look at
Genesis 2:15,16 And the LORD GOD took the man, and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it. And the LORD GOD commanded the man, saying..."
In regard to the possibility of Adam still being innocent, in
2:16 we receive witness to the effect that Adam had already accepted YHWH as his GOD (for he accepted the command to not eat the fruit of a certain tree as GOD's command) which means that
he was no longer innocent.
[Aside:
Innocent as used in the Bible from Strong's Concordance:
naqiy:
1) clean, free from, exempt, clear, innocent
a) free from guilt, clean, innocent
b) free from punishment
c) free or exempt from obligations
2)
innocent also includes the English implications of: simple, naive, unsophisticated, artless and lack of guile as an inexperienced person,
]
So then,
even if Adam was still innocent when he arrived in the garden, he did not stay innocent for very long for he quickly had to make choices regarding whether he would accept YHWH as his GOD, whether he would dress and keep the garden, and whether he'd stay away from the forbidden fruit. So Adam was either righteous or unrighteous right after GOD commanded him.
Now, in regard to the possibility of Adam being righteous, if Adam was righteous he would be faithfully following GOD's will for him, that is, willing to do whatever GOD wanted him to do, right? And what did GOD want him to do?
Well, it seems that, in addition to dressing and keeping the garden, etc, GOD wanted him to get married and that, to get his wife there, Adam had to go into a deep (but possibly conscious) sleep, and donate a bone and some flesh. And was Adam willing to comply with GOD's will for him in this? Well, he was, but only after GOD had brought him all the animals first and they had all been shown to be unsuitable:
Genesis 2:20 And Adam gave names to all cattle, and to the fowl of the air, and to every beast of the field; but for Adam there was not found an help meet for him.
Now, in regard to this little episode, I wonder why GOD had to resort to such tactics if Adam was willing to do whatever GOD wanted him to do? Why did GOD have to first bring him all the animals and show him that they were unsuitable? If Adam was willing to believe GOD, why didn't HE just tell him that an animal was not what HE wanted?
Moreover, just whose idea was it that one of the animals might work? It certainly could not have been GOD's, could it?
Well now, it seems that we are at the point where we must either admit that Adam was off course (unwilling to do GOD's will - unrighteous) in a very weird sort of way (to wit: already looking among the animals for a wife and not very willing to listen to what GOD had to say about it) or,
admit that GOD was taking preventive measures to stop Adam from rejecting HIS helpmeet and suggesting an animal instead, when HE would tell him about getting married to Eve. Either way, it would seem that God was convinced that Adam was reluctant (unwilling) to fulfil HIS will for him, to the point that certain steps had to be taken before (so that) he would become willing.
Since this was the situation, how can we believe that Adam was righteous, preferring to comply with GOD's will above all else? How can Adam be this reluctant/rebellious to doing this GOD's way and, at the same time, be faithfully willing to fulfil HIS purpose for him?
So this episode shows us that Adam could not have been innocent (for sure upon the first command in Eden) and it also shows us that he could not have been faithful about getting married to Eve in the near future.
In my Christian opinion, there is only one possible moral state remaining for Adam. Adam had to be unrighteous, that is, in rebellion to the leading of the Holy Spirit, for sure at the time when GOD brought him the animals and quite possibly even before that time. In other words, Adam needed to repent, and be converted to GOD's purpose for him in the matter regarding his marriage to HIS helpmeet, and perhaps in other areas too.
Along with the few other hints* that all was not
meod tov ie, there was sin in the garden before they ate the forbidden fruit, I suggest that the time spent scrutinizing pre-conception existence (PCE) doctrines may be surprisingly fruitful.
*Theological HINTS in scripture: about there being no PROOF verses such as
a stick in your eye type of proof for PCE. Even
Jeremiah 1:5 Before I formed you in the womb I knew you...is explained away by the orthodox folk who have had 4000 years to puzzle out alternative meanings for these HINTS to the doctrine of PCE which doctrine may be the one that is to be hidden till the end times.