This is a reply to
Desert Reign's post.
But that is simply not true. Innocent until proven guilty applies to crimes. That is why the phrase 'moral legitimacy' is so loaded. The onus of proof lies on the accuser of a crime but immorality is not per se a crime.
Law reflects morality, with the ideal legal system being a direct mirror of the ideal moral system, wouldn't you agree? The whole point of the law is to implement justice. Any law which failed to do that would be unjust (I.E. immoral) as it would impose a restriction (on freedom) without justification. You seem to conflate legitimacy with legality and they are not identical terms, though, as described above, ideally should be mirrors of each other. When I say "moral legitimacy" I mean "moral acceptability". This is a definitionally accurate use of the term "legitimacy".
There is no onus of proof, neither did I condemn anyone because this is not about legitimacy.
There is always a burden of proof with any claim made within rational discourse, whether a conversation about morality, legality or anything else. Rational minds model their perception of reality based upon the evidence. This is why rational minds require evidence for any claim (in order to believe it, not as an optional afterthought).
I am sure you would like it to be because then you can argue how bad those awful people are who hate homosexuality. But that would be a straw man and really only yourself who would be deluded. And it would still be a straw man even if there are (as I am sure is the case) people out there who condemn homosexuality, because two wrongs don't make a right.
Your inaccurate speculation about what I might have wanted to argue does not equate to me actually arguing it and therefore straw manning you. Two wrongs don't make a right? Do you mean to suggest that it is immoral (wrong) to criticise somebody else for their immorality?
Well, that may be so, though I doubt it. Their main concern is to establish order and freedom and to protect the disadvantaged. Whether any of this is moral or not is just a bonus.
The law is to implement justice I.E. regulate conduct involving others in an equitable way.
The law is directly antagonistic to freedom because it consists of specific limits on freedom but only on the freedom to harm others (perpetrate immorality). As the bible wisely notes, the law is (primarily) for the lawless. A legal system where morality is merely an optional bonus would be a very undesirable legal system indeed.
What you are doing is seeking legitimacy for homosexuality because you need affirmation. Like I said before, you are welcome to have a homosexual relationship so long as you keep it to yourselves. But don't come begging for me to tell you that you are doing anything terribly wonderful.
I do not require your approval. I require legal equality. No change in the law is advocated which requires you to attend same-sex weddings, waving a flag and cheering. Now who is straw manning? Why should a same-sex couple
"keep it to themselves" any more than an opposite sex one? And what about a private family gathering between a same-sex couple and their loved ones equates to not
"keeping it to themselves"?
ME: Most people who object to SS (legal) marriage
YOU: Well, then all you have to do is ask instead of just guessing... Otherwise you have yet another straw man. But I am fairly sure you will find most Christians tell you that marriage is marriage, whether religious or not. So it really is a straw man. We object to homosexual marriage because it is not marriage, not because we are religious.
Guessing what? And no it is not a straw man. If you mean I am straw manning your position on marriage, that seems irrelevant as I was describing general opposition to SS marriage, not
your opposition to it. This was indicated when I said
"Most people".
Your assertion that it is
"not marriage" fails to address my points. It is an indisputable fact that there is
"legal marriage", defined based upon the sum of the laws regulating it within any given jurisdiction. This is indisputably distinct from religious marriage, which is defined based upon the stipulations of an individual/ couple's religious views. These two forms of marriage can and do occur independently of each other. If you feel you can dispute it then
explain how I am wrong rather than simply asserting your opinion please. Here is a quote to make the distinction between legal/religious marriage more obvious (it is referring exclusively to marriage, rather than all ceremonies btw):
UK Office for National Statistics: said:
"Since 1992 there have been more civil ceremonies in England and Wales than religious ceremonies. In 2009 civil ceremonies accounted for 67 per cent of all ceremonies, an increase from 62 per cent in 1999."
That's wrong on both counts. Firstly, it has nothing to do with religion. See above.
Yes it does.
Gallup said:
"Americans who oppose the legalization of same-sex marriage, 46% of the adult population, are most likely to explain their position on the basis of religious beliefs".
http://www.gallup.com/poll/159089/religion-major-factor-americans-opposed-sex-marriage.aspx
Secondly, I do have the right to participate in the lawmaking process of the country I live in. So, asked if I support homosexual marriage, the answer is no. And I have a perfect right to say so.
Your right to make a judgement does not itself make that judgement justified and therefore right. That is what I am debating, not whether or not you have a right to make a judgement. This is the part where you would needlessly accuse me of making a straw man if you had responded to a point similar to the one I just did. You also continue to conflate legal and religious marriage in the above quote.
Once again, it has nothing to do with religious freedom. We are Christians because we love the truth, not because we like being religious.
I'm sure Muslims are Muslim because they love the truth too and Zoroastrians are Zoroastrian because they love the truth, likewise for Hindus, Mormons, Buddhists, Sikhs and worshippers of all of the other deities which are mutually inconsistent with yours.
All you are doing here is seeking affirmation. You're just making vague statements in an attempt to argue that there is no point in having a specific definition of marriage as a union of a man and a woman.
Not really. It is an indisputable fact that there is not a specific definition of marriage as a union of a man and a women, as demonstrated by the legality of polygamy in almost 50 nations and even by its sanctioning within the bible (Exodus 21:10 and Deuteronomy 21:15–17).
And you actually make my point very well. You can say what you like but it doesn't change the fact that you are black (or white, etc.) You can call your relationship a marriage if you like but it isn't.
Except that marriage is subjectively constructed by humans and so is whatever we define it to be. Legal marriage is defined by the laws which involve it. Laws can and do change and unjust (arbitrarily discriminatory) ones should change.
What you are referring to is the sexual deviation of homosexuality. Homosexuality is an example of that.
The sexual deviation from the norm of homosexuals is as relevant as the intellectual deviation of Albert Einstein or Steven Hawking from the norm.
YOU: Homosexuality is abnormal behaviour.
ME: They are not behaviours. How do I know?
YOU: This has got nothing to do with marriage.
Correct. You raised a topic which was separate from the marriage topic and I responded to it.
ME: We would still classify a young individual who had not yet had the opportunity to act upon their attractions, or a celibate, as heterosexual, homosexual or bisexual. We would still classify a man who was raped by or who prostituted themselves to another man as heterosexual if they were exclusively attracted to women. Involuntary attractions are therefore necessary and sufficient to assign SO, while actions are neither. If you disagree, please explain how so.
YOU: I don't see what this has got to do with normality. We all have urges to do all sorts of wild things from time to time and we simply have to learn to control them.
It doesn't have anything to do with normality. It was a response to your claim that homosexuality is a behaviour. To refute you on the relevance of normality to moral
legitimacy (
not moral
legality), I point out that some people are abnormally kind or healthy, demonstrating that abnormality is irrelevant to what is good/bad, morally or otherwise.
We do not have to control our responses to urges on the basis of them being
"wild", we have to do so if they are immoral. This is therefore irrelevant to homosexuality, which is not immoral and consequently doesn't need to be
"controlled" to any greater an extent than heterosexuality. If you're attempting to promote the notion that homosexuality can be changed then I'd recommend my two videos on the topic.
Ex-Gay leaders/founders themselves reject the movement:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=p4DqhUjDc7Y
Over 30 examples of ex-ex-gays who spent years or decades trying unsuccessfully to change using a variety of methods (yes, including enormous amounts of prayer and bible study):
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QntMgewZ90Y
That is all of course without me even getting in to the social science research on the topic.
There is a difference between unusual and abnormal. There is no point in legitimizing something that is abnormal.
Then please define
"abnormal" and establish its relevance. The unjustified, meaningless negative connotation attached to the word does not magically justify itself.
Thanks for the reply.