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You have been led to seek the wrong thing, understanding that is a dead end.
Kindly address what I have submitted to you. Speak of where I am wrong?
ECT Great Commission
- Thread starter SaulToPaul 2
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You have been led to seek the wrong thing, understanding that is a dead end.
Kindly address what I have submitted to you. Speak of where I am wrong?
SaulToPaul 2
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Hope everyone noticed the diversion Tet pulled.
Jesus spoke of the end of the ages.
Paul spoke of the same thing.
(1 Cor 10:11) These things happened to them as examples and were written down as warnings for us, on whom the culmination of the ages has come.
The "end of the ages", "culmination of the ages", "end of the world", "end of the heavens and earth", or whatever you want to call it, happened in 70AD.
The Disciples asked Jesus when the "end of the age" would happen:
(Matt 24:3) "Tell us," they said, "when will this happen, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?"
You however, can't have the end of the age happening in 70AD like it did, because your Dispensationalism falls apart.
SaulToPaul 2
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When was this fulfilled:
". . . . . . and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, . . . . . . ." Zechariah 12:10 (KJV)
(John 19:36-37) These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: “Not one of his bones will be broken,” 37 and, as another scripture says, “They will look on the one they have pierced.”
Nope
Which death?
Read verse 54
(1 Cor 15:54) When the perishable has been clothed with the imperishable, and the mortal with immortality, then the saying that is written will come true: “Death has been swallowed up in victory.
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Good! Now factor this into your thinking that should cause you rethink your position:
"Behold, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, even those who pierced him, and all tribes of the earth will wail on account of him. Even so. Amen."
Revelation 1:7 (ESV)
Revelation 1:7 proves Jesus had to return before those who pierced Him all died.
How could those who pierced Him in the first century be alive to see Him return if it's a yet future event?
SaulToPaul 2
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1 Cor 15
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
When was death destroyed?
Rev 20
14 And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.
YOU SAY HE IS STILL REIGNING, AND THAT HE CANNOT REIGN WITHOUT ENEMIES.
This is a different end than your alleged 70ad ending.
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I'm not disagreeing with you that death will be cast into the lake of fire when the thousand years are over.
I'm disagreeing with you on when you think "the end" took place.
You quoted Revelation.
In Revelation John tells his readers "what must soon take place", and uses the words " near" and "soon" to describe the prophecies.
John was also told not to seal his scroll because the time was near
(Rev 22:10) Then he told me, "Do not seal up the words of the prophecy of this scroll, because the time is near.
Some of those who pierced Christ Jesus were still alive in 70AD. Jesus made it clear that some would not taste death before He returned.
No, I believe what John said in Revelation. I believe the time was near, and those who pierced Christ Jesus did see Him return in 70AD just like Jesus said.
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Every eye will see Him. You continue to ignore that little thing along with the overall timeframe of what was revealed to John that speaks of 2000+/- yrs between Ad 70 and what was revealed to him in and by Jesus Christ. Go figure your obstinacy and to what end, baffles me.
What is the context?
There is absolutely nothing in Revelation that suggests a 2,000+ year gap. In fact, Revelation makes it clear that the events were to happen soon. John was told not to seal his scroll because the events were to happen soon because the time was near.
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Too late. I'm done. Suffer.
That's usually what happens when people like you attempt to explain how the phrase: "because the time is near" means 2,000 years and counting.
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Wrong again. My last words were for people you who have their own private agendas.
How is believing that "the time is near" means what it actually says a private agenda?
Because I believe the phrase "what must soon take place." also means what it says, is that a private agenda?
According to you, "the time is near" and "what must soon take place" really means 2,000 years and still counting.
That's a private agenda by you.