GALATIANS 2 THE GOSPEL TO THE GENTILES

clefty

New member
Luke 24:47and that repentance for the forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in his name to all nations, beginning from Jerusalem.

Rom. 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.
When did the Jews hear it first?

No matter when any one hears it...the gospel doesn’t include a “do what thou whilst” clause...
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again Right Divider and Danoh,
You're very confused. It wasn't about someone preaching a gospel to Paul.
Possibly what I said was ambiguous, but what I was trying to say was: Paul seems to use a stronger term, stating a curse upon anyone preaching a different Gospel to the Gospel preached by Paul. Your explanation as given in your blog does not help:
Many claim that Galatians 1 precludes multiple gospels. But it's simply them ignoring context as is too typical of many.
Gal 1:6-9 (AKJV/PCE) (1:6) I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel: (1:7) Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ. (1:8) But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed. (1:9) As we said before, so say I now again, If any [man] preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
There is a specific audience involved here. Once you take that into account, there is no problem at all.
We're obviously miles apart from one another on what we each hold constitutes a proper approach to a right understanding of these things.
At the same time, whether a person is right or wrong about one thing or another has never been a big deal for me.
I am more interested in discussing these things than trying to win an argument. I suggest that you carefully consider why Peter incorrectly separated from the Gentiles and why Barnabas also was influenced to take a wrong position.
Galatians 2:11–14 (KJV): 11 But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed. 12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision. 13 And the other Jews dissembled likewise with him; insomuch that Barnabas also was carried away with their dissimulation. 14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?
Note they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, the One Gospel, not that Peter was now trying to introduce a different gospel.

Peter states the underlining concept in the following, and Peter had been taught that he should no longer as a Jew stand aloof from fellowship with the Gentile believers.
Acts 10:28 (KJV): And he said unto them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean.
This is one aspect of what I said previously, that I suggest that it takes a careful examination and reading between the lines to understand the background to the Letter to the Galatians and Acts 15.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

Right Divider

Body part
Greetings again Right Divider and Danoh,Possibly what I said was ambiguous, but what I was trying to say was: Paul seems to use a stronger term, stating a curse upon anyone preaching a different Gospel to the Gospel preached by Paul. Your explanation as given in your blog does not help:
You continue to be confused. There are MANY gospels in the Bible.

I am more interested in discussing these things than trying to win an argument. I suggest that you carefully consider why Peter incorrectly separated from the Gentiles and why Barnabas also was influenced to take a wrong position.
Peter HAD separated from the gentiles because that is what God told them to do. Nothing about that had changed prior to God's calling of Paul.

Lev 20:22-26 KJV Ye shall therefore keep all my statutes, and all my judgments, and do them: that the land, whither I bring you to dwell therein, spue you not out. (23) And ye shall not walk in the manners of the nation, which I cast out before you: for they committed all these things, and therefore I abhorred them. (24) But I have said unto you, Ye shall inherit their land, and I will give it unto you to possess it, a land that floweth with milk and honey: I am the LORD your God, which have separated you from other people. (25) Ye shall therefore put difference between clean beasts and unclean, and between unclean fowls and clean: and ye shall not make your souls abominable by beast, or by fowl, or by any manner of living thing that creepeth on the ground, which I have separated from you as unclean. (26) And ye shall be holy unto me: for I the LORD am holy, and have severed you from other people, that ye should be mine.

The vast majority of the gentiles were heathen idol worshipers that opposed God at every turn.

Nowhere in Acts 10 do you find Peter preaching the gospel of the grace of God to gentiles.
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again Right Divider,
You continue to be confused. There are MANY gospels in the Bible.
I know that this is your claim, but I believe that there is only One Gospel from the Garden of Eden until now.
Peter HAD separated from the gentiles because that is what God told them to do. Nothing about that had changed prior to God's calling of Paul. Lev 20:22-26 KJV The vast majority of the gentiles were heathen idol worshipers that opposed God at every turn.
When Peter was told to preach the One Gospel to Cornelius he was instructed that the former separation between the Gentiles and the Jews was done away with.
Acts 10:28, 34-35 (KJV): 28 And he said unto them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean. 34 Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons: 35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.
So here clearly the previous separation between Jews and Gentiles has been abolished, and the reason is not because of these Gentiles being idol worshippers, but because they worshipped God.
And when Peter and Barnabas separated from the Gentile believers at Antioch Paul told them that they were not walking in conformity with the Truth of the One Gospel.
Galatians 2:11-14 (KJV): 11 But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed. 12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision. 13 And the other Jews dissembled likewise with him; insomuch that Barnabas also was carried away with their dissimulation. 14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?
And notice Paul says "the Gospel" here, and he expected Peter to act in accordance to the One Gospel.
Nowhere in Acts 10 do you find Peter preaching the gospel of the grace of God to gentiles.
Peter preached the One Gospel to Cornelius and this includes the forgiveness of psst sins, the grace of God in passing over past transgressions Romans 3:23-26.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

Right Divider

Body part
Greetings again Right Divider, I know that this is your claim, but I believe that there is only One Gospel from the Garden of Eden until now.
What you believe is irrelevant. The Bible contains many GOOD NEWS's, just go look.

When Peter was told to preach the One Gospel to Cornelius he was instructed that the former separation between the Gentiles and the Jews was done away with.
Acts 10:28, 34-35 (KJV): 28 And he said unto them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean. 34 Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons: 35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.
So here clearly the previous separation between Jews and Gentiles has been abolished, and the reason is not because of these Gentiles being idol worshippers, but because they worshipped God.
So you think that working righteousness is required to be accepted by God? You do not have the slightest clue about what God is doing today.

Galatians 2:11-14 (KJV): 11 But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed. 12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision. 13 And the other Jews dissembled likewise with him; insomuch that Barnabas also was carried away with their dissimulation. 14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?
Peter preached the One Gospel to Cornelius and this includes the forgiveness of psst sins, the grace of God in passing over past transgressions Romans 3:23-26.

Kind regards
Trevor

Please demonstrate this presumption with some scripture.

Your "one gospel" story is a myth.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
I can't say whether Clavinism or Dispensationalism is the more correct interpretation of the Bible. Neither of them consider the 73-book Bible, only the 66-book Bible. And neither of them have any answer for why they don't have bishops anymore, even though that office's birth and infancy are witnessed to by the New Testament, but nonetheless none of them have bishops. I guess they each think that they're each individual bishops themselves, since they all read 1st & 2nd Timothy and Titus as if they're addressed to them, instead of to bishops.

All's to say is that you're dealing with a Dispensationalist, and good luck.
And you Roman Catholic con artists have no answer as to why you do not raise the dead, sell all you have, leave all you have, including your wife, as this alleged "first pope" Peter did, make the blind see, go to Jerusalem 3 times/year to keep the feasts,............................................................................................
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
And you Roman Catholic con artists have no answer as to why you do not raise the dead, sell all you have, leave all you have, including your wife, as this alleged "first pope" Peter did, make the blind see, go to Jerusalem 3 times/year to keep the feasts,............................................................................................
Deceit, Evasion.

"I can't say whether Clavinism or Dispensationalism is the more correct interpretation of the Bible. Neither of them consider the 73-book Bible, only the 66-book Bible. And neither of them have any answer for why they don't have bishops anymore, even though that office's birth and infancy are witnessed to by the New Testament, but nonetheless none of them have bishops."-Me

You-"Well you see . . . err, context . . . rightly dividing . . . Peter left his wife"

We know.
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again Right Divider and Greetings john w,
What you believe is irrelevant. The Bible contains many GOOD NEWS's, just go look. So you think that working righteousness is required to be accepted by God? You do not have the slightest clue about what God is doing today. Please demonstrate this presumption with some scripture. Your "one gospel" story is a myth.
Your reply came four minutes after I posted, and before I did some final editing. This gives some indication that you did not properly consider Galatians 2:11-14, and at least in your response you did not answer this.
Did Judas preach this "only One Gospel?"
Luke 9:1–2 (KJV): Then he called his twelve disciples together, and gave them power and authority over all devils, and to cure diseases. 2 And he sent them to preach the kingdom of God, and to heal the sick.
Yes, why do you ask?
1 Corinthians 9:24–27 (KJV): 24 Know ye not that they which run in a race run all, but one receiveth the prize? So run, that ye may obtain. 25 And every man that striveth for the mastery is temperate in all things. Now they do it to obtain a corruptible crown; but we an incorruptible. 26 I therefore so run, not as uncertainly; so fight I, not as one that beateth the air: 27 But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
Greetings again Right Divider and Greetings john w, Your reply came four minutes after I posted, and before I did some final editing. This gives some indication that you did not properly consider Galatians 2:11-14, and at least in your response you did not answer this.
Luke 9:1–2 (KJV): Then he called his twelve disciples together, and gave them power and authority over all devils, and to cure diseases. 2 And he sent them to preach the kingdom of God, and to heal the sick.

I asked Trevor, based upon his "only One Gospel" argument:

Did Judas preach this "only One Gospel?"

His on record response:

Yes, why do you ask?
1 Corinthians 9:24–27 (KJV): 24 Know ye not that they which run in a race run all, but one receiveth the prize? So run, that ye may obtain. 25 And every man that striveth for the mastery is temperate in all things. Now they do it to obtain a corruptible crown; but we an incorruptible. 26 I therefore so run, not as uncertainly; so fight I, not as one that beateth the air: 27 But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway.

Kind regards
Trevor
Not only does he cite the wrong scripture above, for his proof text, the 1 Cor. 9:24-27 KJV passage, which is quite irrelevant, as he should have cited not only Luke 9:1-2 KJV, but the verses following, 3-6, noticing specifically Luke 9:6 KJV, and Matthew 10:1-8 KJV, he also foolishly, ignorantly asserts, on record, that Judas was a gospel of Christ, 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV preacher, and preached:

"Hey, everyone!!! Good news!!!! The Master is going to die for our sins,be buried, and raised again for our justification!!!! Believe this good news, to be saved!!!! Well, gotta go, as my broker, is calling me, telling me that he has a 'silver play,'........"


That is satanic, and you made that up, as the 12, including your "saint" Jude, while preaching the gospel of the kingdom, the "good news" of the impending kingdom, being realized on earth(Deuteronomy 11:21 KJV coming to fruition, with the arrival of the King), for 3 years, or so, had no idea, prior to the dbr, that the Lord Jesus Christ was going to die, and be raised; thus, the gospel of Christ, as outlined in 1 Cor. 15:1-4 KJV, which has at it's basis the dbr,the death/burial/resurrection, is not equivalent to the gospel/"good news," of the kingdom. Thus you made up this "only one piece of good news in the bible" jazz, which you obtained from your also made up "only one church in the bible" "doctrine" SOF(Statement Of Faith), not by examining, surveying, studying, the details of the bible.

There is plenty of good news,yes, more than one piece of good news/gospel in the book; the time, context, tells us what "good news"/gospel, is in view.

What motivates, causes you, to make things up, like you do, did, re. this "only one piece of good news" in the book?That is a rhetorical question. I will tell you, again:

1.You are like most, in your "bible study," lackadaisical, sloppy, disregarding the details of "the volume of the book," a book of details, and prefer reading, relying on your "the church" SOF.

2. You are clueless, like most, of the meaning of the biblical word, "gospel."

No charge on my diagnosis. You are welcome.
 

Right Divider

Body part
Greetings again Right Divider and Greetings john w, Your reply came four minutes after I posted, and before I did some final editing.
I respond to what you post. Do you "final editing" before you post.

This gives some indication that you did not properly consider Galatians 2:11-14, and at least in your response you did not answer this.
The dispensational change had already come at that point. No issue there.

Luke 9:1–2 (KJV): Then he called his twelve disciples together, and gave them power and authority over all devils, and to cure diseases. 2 And he sent them to preach the kingdom of God, and to heal the sick.
They healed EVERYONE.... why don't you do that?

Act 5:12-16 KJV And by the hands of the apostles were many signs and wonders wrought among the people; (and they were all with one accord in Solomon's porch. (13) And of the rest durst no man join himself to them: but the people magnified them. (14) And believers were the more added to the Lord, multitudes both of men and women.) (15) Insomuch that they brought forth the sick into the streets, and laid them on beds and couches, that at the least the shadow of Peter passing by might overshadow some of them. (16) There came also a multitude out of the cities round about unto Jerusalem, bringing sick folks, and them which were vexed with unclean spirits:
and they were healed every one.

Yes, why do you ask?
There are LOTS of GOOD NEWS's in the Bible. Gospel simply means GOOD NEWS.
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again Right Divider,
I respond to what you post. Do you "final editing" before you post.
Valid comment, but perhaps I am a bit slow in getting what I want to say correct, and this was mainly an error in underlining.
The dispensational change had already come at that point. No issue there.
Was Peter now supposed to fellowship Gentiles? And when it says of Peter and Barnabas, “they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel”, which Gospel was this, perhaps using your definition “the Gospel of the Kingdom” or “the Gospel of Grace”, and which Gospel was Peter under, the one that fellowshipped Gentiles or the one that commanded the Jews to be separate from the Gentiles?
They healed EVERYONE.... why don't you do that?
I do not have the Holy Spirit gift of healing.
There are LOTS of GOOD NEWS's in the Bible. Gospel simply means GOOD NEWS.
There is a difference between good news and the Good News, or The Gospel, as per Galatians 2:14.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again john w,
I asked Trevor, based upon his "only One Gospel" argument: His on record response:
Not only does he cite the wrong scripture above, for his proof text, the 1 Cor. 9:24-27 KJV passage, which is quite irrelevant, as he should have cited not only Luke 9:1-2 KJV, but the verses following, 3-6, noticing specifically Luke 9:6 KJV, and Matthew 10:1-8 KJV, he also foolishly, ignorantly asserts, on record, that Judas was a gospel of Christ, 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV preacher, and preached:
"Hey, everyone!!! Good news!!!! The Master is going to die for our sins,be buried, and raised again for our justification!!!! Believe this good news, to be saved!!!! Well, gotta go, as my broker, is calling me, telling me that he has a 'silver play,'........"
That is satanic, and you made that up, as the 12, including your "saint" Jude, while preaching the gospel of the kingdom, the "good news" of the impending kingdom, being realized on earth(Deuteronomy 11:21 KJV coming to fruition, with the arrival of the King), for 3 years, or so, had no idea, prior to the dbr, that the Lord Jesus Christ was going to die, and be raised; thus, the gospel of Christ, as outlined in 1 Cor. 15:1-4 KJV, which has at it's basis the dbr,the death/burial/resurrection, is not equivalent to the gospel/"good news," of the kingdom. Thus you made up this "only one piece of good news in the bible" jazz, which you obtained from your also made up "only one church in the bible" "doctrine" SOF(Statement Of Faith), not by examining, surveying, studying, the details of the bible.
The Gospel about the death, burial and resurrection is taught throughout the OT, for example the Promise concerning Eve’s seed, the various promises to Abraham and David, the enactment in Genesis 22, the teaching of Psalm 16 and Isaiah 53. The opening of Jesus’ ministry was at his baptism when he prefigured his dbr and also stated the following:
Matthew 3:13–15 (KJV): 13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
The whole teaching and example of Jesus throughout his ministry was to reveal the way, the truth and the life. Others replace this with various teachings, a wrong view of “grace”, OSAS, Calvinism, “faith alone” and other variations. I am not sure what is your mix of ideas; possibly some form of Mid Acts Dispensationalism.
There is plenty of good news,yes, more than one piece of good news/gospel in the book; the time, context, tells us what "good news"/gospel, is in view.
What motivates, causes you, to make things up, like you do, did, re. this "only one piece of good news" in the book? That is a rhetorical question.
It is the One Gospel with expanding detail. Abraham was justified by faith in Genesis 15:6, but if we now ignore most of the detail including the dbr then we will not be justified.
I will tell you, again:
1.You are like most, in your "bible study," lackadaisical, sloppy, disregarding the details of "the volume of the book," a book of details, and prefer reading, relying on your "the church" SOF.
2. You are clueless, like most, of the meaning of the biblical word, "gospel."
No charge on my diagnosis. You are welcome.
Nice assessment, but little substance. You seem to preach two different Gospels, and thus you do not follow the teaching of Jesus.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Greetings again john w, The Gospel about the death, burial and resurrection is taught throughout the OT, for example the Promise concerning Eve’s seed, the various promises to Abraham and David, the enactment in Genesis 22, the teaching of Psalm 16 and Isaiah 53.
Kind regards
Trevor

All of which was cryptic and not understood going forward but is understood after Christ's earthly ministry through hindsight and illumination by the Spirit.

As they say, "Hindsight is 20/20!"
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again steko,
All of which was cryptic and not understood going forward but is understood after Christ's earthly ministry through hindsight and illumination by the Spirit.
As they say, "Hindsight is 20/20!"
Jesus rebuked the disciples for not understanding these things and then instructed them Luke 24:25-27, 45-47. All I can say is that it was not FULLY understood, but the overall effect was that the partial belief was counted to them for righteousness Genesis 15:6, Habakkuk 2:4 and these two passages which apply to believers in OT times are used by Paul to teach salvation through belief in the One Gospel Romans 1:1-3, 16-17, 4:1-3.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

Right Divider

Body part
Greetings again Right Divider, Valid comment, but perhaps I am a bit slow in getting what I want to say correct, and this was mainly an error in underlining.
Feel free to edit offline and post it when you are done.

Was Peter now supposed to fellowship Gentiles?
God used SPECIAL revelation to send Peter to a gentile that was already a believer and a supporter of Israel. This sending occurred AFTER God had called Paul. Feel free to learn about it all.

And when it says of Peter and Barnabas, “they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel”, which Gospel was this, perhaps using your definition “the Gospel of the Kingdom” or “the Gospel of Grace”, and which Gospel was Peter under, the one that fellowshipped Gentiles or the one that commanded the Jews to be separate from the Gentiles?
This is clearly talking about the gospel that Paul was preaching (neither Jew NOR Greek).

I do not have the Holy Spirit gift of healing.
They all had it.

There is a difference between good news and the Good News, or The Gospel, as per Galatians 2:14.
Classic Churchianity.
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Greetings again steko, Jesus rebuked the disciples for not understanding these things and then instructed them Luke 24:25-27, 45-47. All I can say is that it was not FULLY understood, but the overall effect was that the partial belief was counted to them for righteousness Genesis 15:6, Habakkuk 2:4 and these two passages which apply to believers in OT times are used by Paul to teach salvation through belief in the One Gospel Romans 1:1-3, 16-17, 4:1-3.

Kind regards
Trevor

Luk 24:45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
 

clefty

New member
Greetings again john w, The Gospel about the death, burial and resurrection is taught throughout the OT, for example the Promise concerning Eve’s seed, the various promises to Abraham and David, the enactment in Genesis 22, the teaching of Psalm 16 and Isaiah 53. The opening of Jesus’ ministry was at his baptism when he prefigured his dbr and also stated the following:
Matthew 3:13–15 (KJV): 13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
The whole teaching and example of Jesus throughout his ministry was to reveal the way, the truth and the life. Others replace this with various teachings, a wrong view of “grace”, OSAS, Calvinism, “faith alone” and other variations. I am not sure what is your mix of ideas; possibly some form of Mid Acts Dispensationalism.
It is the One Gospel with expanding detail. Abraham was justified by faith in Genesis 15:6, but if we now ignore most of the detail including the dbr then we will not be justified.
Nice assessment, but little substance. You seem to preach two different Gospels, and thus you do not follow the teaching of Jesus.

Kind regards
Trevor

Yeah dont preach another gospel...just the one...

As if the kingdom of heaven or the church or whatever is a apartheid state...with two ways for two people...

Reminds me of how it is argued the OT was for jews only...when actually it was ONE LAW for native and foreigner alike...


Whosoever believes...has one path...Him His way...straight and narrow...
 

clefty

New member
Luk 24:45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,

The only scriptures they had at that time was the OT...which spoke of Him...that is the gospel...rejected by Israel...but embraced by His new wife the church...the same church of the wilderness as Stephen called it...
 
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