beloved57
Well-known member
I have no problem with those scriptures. Have yall studied them? That's you guys responsibility first and foremost. Neither of those scriptures says that men in the flesh can please God or obey God. But scripture I provided says that man in the flesh can't please God Rom 8:8 and can't submit to God Rom 8:7. I am responsible for explaining those verses if need be. I will not do yalls work.I am re-posting the scriptures cited by GT adding some comments of my own.
Ezekiel 18:23
"Do I have any pleasure in the death of the wicked," declares the Lord GOD, "rather than that he should turn from his ways and live?
Ezekiel 18:32
"For I have no pleasure in the death of anyone who dies," declares the Lord GOD. "Therefore, repent and live."
Ezekiel 33:11
"Say to them, 'As I live!' declares the Lord GOD, 'I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that the wicked turn from his way and live. Turn back, turn back from your evil ways! Why then will you die, O house of Israel?'
1. The Lord says He does not delight in the death of the wicked but, if he created certain people specifically to be "vessels of wrath fitted for destruction" then why would He not be overjoyed? When the wicked die and enter hell they will have finally realized the very purpose for which they have been created. The fact that God is not happy about the outcome shows that it was not what He wanted for them.
2. We do not need to speculate about what God really wants for the wicked for He says so Himself. Instead of dying (and entering Eternity in a state of wickedness) God would rather that they turn from their evil ways and turn to Him.
3. The prophet, speaking for God, issues this agonized plea "Why then will you die, O house of Israel" Why indeed? There is no reason to go on in their wickedness and die when there was a way of escape. However, there would be a very good reason to continue the way they were going If they had no other choice. That reason would be God Himself who had predetermined both that they should be wicked and that they should inevitably be recipients of divine anger. If that is true, then why does God need to ask? Why act like they had a choice when they did not? Is this just theater, a morality play?
4. Reading these scriptures without any presuppositions how could anyone conclude that it was really God Himself who was guiding them irresistibly them towards destruction...while simultaneously pleading with them to repent? Would Israel have understood the prophecy this way? There is no evidence for this view in the text. Taken as it stands these verses say that God really wanted Israel to repent but that they refused His call and His warning.
5. It is evident then that God's call is not irresistible and that people whom God genuinely wants to turn around can refuse to listen. This is exactly the how Jesus described God's struggle with His own people in Luke 13:34.
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