ELECT Sinners In The Hands Of An Angry God

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
A tradition is not a person, and only persons believe things; traditions don't believe things.
Mine was perfectly valid language. Holy Catholicism and Holy Orthodoxy are more than people, but they are not less.
Contrary to any falsehood you may wish to assert (and, as a matter of course, baldly), the truth is that neither Jesus Christ, nor any of the persons who wrote the New Testament, believed or taught that one or more pieces of bread became/becomes/will become Jesus Christ.
And my response remains the same as it's always been: "This is My body," quoted Four Times. (Three of those times, it's literally "Take, eat, this is My body.") And in John's Gospel, the Apostle instead of quoting the Lord saying it yet another time, gives us, in chapter six, the feeding of the 5000, followed right up with Christ Jesus's discourse on the Eucharist, which cements that already uniformly received fact, that He is present in the "breaking of bread" (1Co11:24KJV Mt26:26KJV Mk14:22KJV Lk22:19KJV Mt18:20KJV Lk24:35KJV).
What's your point? Are you saying that the phrase, "The Real Presence", and the word, "Transubstantiation", are not synonymous?
Yes.
I, for one, never thought, nor stated, that they are.
You quoted something that I wrote about the Real Presence. Then by the middle of your post, you stopped saying Real Presence and instead your attention was on 'transubstantiation.' They're not the same thing. So you either thought they were synonymous, or you are guilty of deliberate equivocation, another informal logical fallacy on your part.
That's gobbledygook.
No, that's explaining briefly exactly how they're not the same thing.
 

Rosenritter

New member
Mine was perfectly valid language. Holy Catholicism and Holy Orthodoxy are more than people, but they are not less.
And my response remains the same as it's always been: "This is My body," quoted Four Times. (Three of those times, it's literally "Take, eat, this is My body.") And in John's Gospel, the Apostle instead of quoting the Lord saying it yet another time, gives us, in chapter six, the feeding of the 5000, followed right up with Christ Jesus's discourse on the Eucharist, which cements that already uniformly received fact, that He is present in the "breaking of bread" (1Co11:24KJV Mt26:26KJV Mk14:22KJV Lk22:19KJV Mt18:20KJV Lk24:35KJV).
Yes.
You quoted something that I wrote about the Real Presence. Then by the middle of your post, you stopped saying Real Presence and instead your attention was on 'transubstantiation.' They're not the same thing. So you either thought they were synonymous, or you are guilty of deliberate equivocation, another informal logical fallacy on your part.
No, that's explaining briefly exactly how they're not the same thing.

Repetition or reuse of the same figure of speech is not evidence that the metaphor is literal.

1. For example, how many times does it say that Jesus is the Lamb of God, and how many times does it explicitly tell us that he is symbolically a lamb and not a literal lamb?

2. Or for bonus credit, how many times does it say God is a rock, and how many times does it tell us that is not literal?
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Repetition or reuse of the same figure of speech is not evidence that the metaphor is literal.

1. For example, how many times does it say that Jesus is the Lamb of God, and how many times does it explicitly tell us that he is symbolically a lamb and not a literal lamb?

2. Or for bonus credit, how many times does it say God is a rock, and how many times does it tell us that is not literal?
He says, "Eat, this is My body." Are we to figuratively / symbolically / metaphorically eat, or are we to really eat?
 

7djengo7

This space intentionally left blank
Mine was perfectly valid language.

And, what "language" of yours are you referring to, here, saying that it "was perfectly valid"? Why, you are referring to what you wrote, here:

The ancientest Christian traditions (Catholicism and Orthodoxy) believed in the Real Presence [of Christ in the Eucharist].

When you affirm that a tradition believes something, you are affirming falsehood. Again, only persons believe things; traditions are not persons, so traditions do not believe things. Whatever you think you mean by saying that what you wrote, there, is "perfectly valid", I don't dispute it, because I don't have a clue what (if anything) you mean by it. Nevertheless, the fact is, what you wrote there is false, since, again, only persons believe things; traditions are not persons, so traditions do not believe things.

Holy Catholicism and Holy Orthodoxy are more than people, but they are not less.

False. Those aren't people at all. They're things people are involved with, yes. But, they're not people. It's downright absurd of you to say that they are people, but, then, you're all about absurdity.

And my response remains the same as it's always been:

And, in that, you have something in common with scarabs.

"This is My body," quoted Four Times. (Three of those times, it's literally "Take, eat, this is My body.")

So, what did those to whom Jesus said "Take, eat, this is My body" eat, right after He said that to them? What did Jesus hand to them to eat? Did they eat literal bread or did they eat literal flesh? Which was it?

And, on that occasion, did Jesus transubstantiate some bread into His body?
Was Jesus' body not Really Present until after the bread He was holding in His hands had been converted into His body? If Jesus' body (including His hands with which He brake the bread, and His vocal organs with which He blessed the bread) was Really Present, then what need was there for His Real Presence in the Eucharist element? Were there two Real Presences of Jesus, simultaneously, on that occasion; one that was in the obvious form of a man, and the other, somehow mysteriously hidden in what looked exactly like multiple pieces of bread?

It is astonishing: one really has to despise his or her God-given reason to go in for the sort of anti-Biblical absurdities you are trying to hand out!

And in John's Gospel, the Apostle instead of quoting the Lord saying it yet another time, gives us, in chapter six, the feeding of the 5000, followed right up with Christ Jesus's discourse on the Eucharist, which cements that already uniformly received fact, that He is present in the "breaking of bread" (1Co11:24KJV Mt26:26KJV Mk14:22KJV Lk22:19KJV Mt18:20KJV Lk24:35KJV).

I already wrote post #416, above, about how, in John chapter six, when Jesus says He is the bread of life, His saying so is necessarily in stark opposition to the absurdities you cherish. Perhaps you have not read it, but I doubt that is the case. But, just in case you haven't, here's a link to it:


You quoted something that I wrote about the Real Presence. Then by the middle of your post, you stopped saying Real Presence and instead your attention was on 'transubstantiation.' They're not the same thing. So you either thought they were synonymous, or you are guilty of deliberate equivocation, another informal logical fallacy on your part.

I already stated clearly that I never thought the word 'transubstantiation' is synonymous with the phrase 'Real Presence', and I never equivocated. Why don't you just quote my exact words in which you claim I was equivocating, and try to explain exactly how, therein, you think I was equivocating? Good luck.

In post #421, you said the phrase 'Real Presence' and then you stopped saying it, and instead, your attention was on the word 'transubstantiation'. They're not the same thing. So "you either thought they were synonymous, or you are guilty of deliberate equivocation, another informal logical fallacy on your part".


you stopped saying Real Presence and instead your attention was on 'transubstantiation.'

Why did you NOT put quotes around the phrase 'Real Presence', here, where they would have been appropriate, nay, should have been, whereas you DID put quotes around the word 'transubstantiation', where they are, at best, useless?

No, that's explaining briefly exactly how they're not the same thing.

No, what you wrote was, indeed, gobbledygook, and no explanation of anything.
 
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Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Rosenritter wrote:



and you reacted to that by sardonically saying:



Are you saying that the phrase, "wafer worship", is offensive? If so, how could you (with any reason) be even the least bit offended by it? Is the word 'wafer' what offends you? If so, why does it offend you? Would "bread worship" be an inoffensive alternative? If so, then why would "wafer worship" be offensive, while "bread worship" is inoffensive? If it's not the word 'wafer', then what is it, exactly, that offends you about the phrase, "wafer worship"? That it's alliterative? That it's alliterative without the two, initial letters 'w' having been capitalized? Is it the word 'worship' that offends you, there? What is your complaint?

Or, were you, with no specific reason, just carping at Rosenritter out of a general feeling of hostility toward those with whom you (as you claim) "agree to disagree"?
I am not offended, I was pointing out that "wafer worship" is objectively and patently offensive and incendiary.

Because Catholicism believes in the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, it isn't "wafer worship" but Christ worship. As such, if the Real Presence is the truth, then adoring the Eucharist is one of the most Christian things to do.

I know that we disagree on the Real Presence, but anytime you address it as if you're right and we're wrong, you're engaging in deliberate offense and begging the question, and "wafer worship" is precisely both those things.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
I can understand why someone would be offended by the term "wafer worship".
It's a snarky comment...designed to elicit offense.
Thank you.
I would venture to say that Catholics don't worship the Eucharist...just as they don't worship Mary.
Catholics worship Christ. And you're right that Catholics do not worship Mary, or any other Saints. Just God. Thank you again.
Or not. I can't speak for Catholics even though I used to be one. I always saw taking communion as symbolic.
:e4e:
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
It's a perfect analogy because Jesus says his disciples ARE his mother and his brethren, which invokes the same conditions (not in the obvious context of a parable, a statement of equivalence) which you used to interpret that the bread was literally his flesh.
Which sacrament was Christ instituting when He said this? This is the different context to which I've been referring. You may not call the Lord's Supper a "sacrament," but you do admit that He was instructing the Church to practice it, correct?
You might say it is obvious that the disciples aren't his mother and brethren, and by the same token it is obvious that the bread was not literally his flesh. His flesh was literally on his bones when he said that.
It's just the different context.
 

Rosenritter

New member
He says, "Eat, this is My body." Are we to figuratively / symbolically / metaphorically eat, or are we to really eat?

Your premise is flawed. For example, when John declares "Behold, the Lamb of God" does he mean to metaphorically behold, or did he mean you could see him with your own eyes? And when he said "God" did he mean really God, or just a figurative god?

John 1:29 KJV
(29) The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

John 1:36 KJV
(36) And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God!

Revelation 7:10 KJV
(10) And cried with a loud voice, saying, Salvation to our God which sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb.

Revelation 7:17 KJV
(17) For the Lamb which is in the midst of the throne shall feed them, and shall lead them unto living fountains of waters: and God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes.

Revelation 14:4 KJV
(4) These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are virgins. These are they which follow the Lamb whithersoever he goeth. These were redeemed from among men, being the firstfruits unto God and to the Lamb.

Using your same method of interpretation for Real Presence of Jesus in wafers made by the hands of man, Jesus is also literally a lamb, with just as man or more verses for support.

A different question: why are the wafers round?
 

Rosenritter

New member
I am not offended, I was pointing out that "wafer worship" is objectively and patently offensive and incendiary.

Because Catholicism believes in the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, it isn't "wafer worship" but Christ worship. As such, if the Real Presence is the truth, then adoring the Eucharist is one of the most Christian things to do.

I know that we disagree on the Real Presence, but anytime you address it as if you're right and we're wrong, you're engaging in deliberate offense and begging the question, and "wafer worship" is precisely both those things.

If you are saying that the Real Presence means it is no longer a wafer, then how can you say that this isn't the same thing as Transubstantiation? It looks like a wafer, it tastes like a wafer, it has the chemical composition of a wafer, it maintains physical properties of weight and inertia like a wafer, it still has the fingerprints of the people that made the wafer, and for all known ways of measurement and detection known to man it is a wafer.
 

Rosenritter

New member
Which sacrament was Christ instituting when He said this? This is the different context to which I've been referring. You may not call the Lord's Supper a "sacrament," but you do admit that He was instructing the Church to practice it, correct?
It's just the different context.

Is there a special rule that Jesus must be administering an instruction of some sort for us to interpret his words in a bizarre manner that defy common sense? "Eat, this is my body" still remains obvious symbolism, as what he handed them to eat was broken Passover bread.

1 Corinthians 11:25-26 KJV
(25) After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.
(26) For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

No, I don't call it a sacrament, but I do think that this is a proper observance that was instituted by Christ, for this specific memorial.
 

The Barbarian

BANNED
Banned
I notice that no one dares to listen to Jonathan Edwards sermon. It is biblically sound, which seems to offend many who post on TOL.

Well, then let's see what the Bible says about it:
2 Peter 3:9 The Lord delayeth not his promise, as some imagine, but dealeth patiently for your sake, not willing that any should perish, but that all should return to penance.

If you're correct, God is working against Himself.
 

MennoSota

New member
Well, then let's see what the Bible says about it:
2 Peter 3:9 The Lord delayeth not his promise, as some imagine, but dealeth patiently for your sake, not willing that any should perish, but that all should return to penance.

If you're correct, God is working against Himself.
Barb, that verse has been addressed by me on multiple occasions. Read the entire chapter, in its context. Note in the beginning of the book that Peter is writing to the elect.
Please, for your own sake, stop misusing God's word as a pathetic prooftext that does not mean what you are claiming it means.

1This is now the second letter that I am writing to you, beloved. In both of them I am stirring up your sincere mind by way of reminder, 2that you should remember the predictions of the holy prophets and the commandment of the Lord and Savior through your apostles, 3knowing this first of all, that scoffers will come in the last days with scoffing, following their own sinful desires. 4They will say, “Where is the promise of his coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all things are continuing as they were from the beginning of creation.” 5For they deliberately overlook this fact, that the heavens existed long ago, and the earth was formed out of water and through water by the word of God, 6and that by means of these the world that then existed was deluged with water and perished. 7But by the same word the heavens and earth that now exist are stored up for fire, being kept until the day of judgment and destruction of the ungodly.

8But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. 9The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you,not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance. 10But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, and then the heavens will pass away with a roar, and the heavenly bodies will be burned up and dissolved, and the earth and the works that are done on it will be exposed.

11Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of people ought you to be in lives of holiness and godliness, 12waiting for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be set on fire and dissolved, and the heavenly bodies will melt as they burn! 13But according to his promise we are waiting for new heavens and a new earth in which righteousness dwells.

14Therefore, beloved, since you are waiting for these, be diligent to be found by him without spot or blemish, and at peace. 15And count the patience of our Lord as salvation, just as our beloved brother Paul also wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16as he does in all his letters when he speaks in them of these matters. There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures. 17You therefore, beloved, knowing this beforehand, take care that you are not carried away with the error of lawless people and lose your own stability. 18But grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. To him be the glory both now and to the day of eternity. Amen.
 

The Barbarian

BANNED
Banned
Barb, that verse has been addressed by me on multiple occasions.

2 Peter 3:9 The Lord delayeth not his promise, as some imagine, but dealeth patiently for your sake, not willing that any should perish, but that all should return to penance.


If they're already saved, why would God be worried that they might perish? C'mon.

Read the entire chapter, in its context. Note in the beginning of the book that Peter is writing to the elect.

I know you want to believe it. But that's not what the chapter says. Have you actually read all of it?

Please, for your own sake, stop denying God's word.

If Peter is addressing only those whom God has already chosen to save, then God has no reason to be concerned for their salvation.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
* My thought is that those that turned away wrongly thought that Jesus speaking literally.
OK. I think rather that they rightly thought it, and due to perhaps what He said in comparison with Lev17:10KJV, Lev17:12KJV, and Lev17:14KJV. So Christ appeared to them to be teaching contrary to the Word of God---them not recognizing Him as God Himself, so their contention was of course invalid.
* No special explanation is needed. The 1 Corinthians passages invoke the gospel account of Christ's Passover, where he applied the broken bread and wine as symbols for the sacrifice he was about to make as the Passover Lamb. As he hadn't yet been slain, they were symbolic of what was to come. He still had his own flesh and blood on his own body.
OK. But then you do admit therefore that partaking of the bread and of the cup unworthily is grave sin? And what do you suppose that the penalty for this grave sin is?
Thank you for the acknowledging that I am trying to be consistent. But as for "not scriptural" isn't my method to interpret scripture by scripture?
Then who is your bishop? You're reading about bishops in the New Testament, and from where I'm sitting, it looks like you subscribe to something like the 'cessation of gifts,' only instead it's the cessation of bishops. You also seem to me to be substituting "Scripture" in, for example, 1st Timothy 3:15 KJV, where instead it reads that it is the Church, and not the Scripture, that is "the pillar and ground of the truth." This of course doesn't say that the Scripture isn't also true, but it does move the Christian faith beyond the written letter, and into the living pastorate, who, nonetheless, are powerless to contravene the Scripture.
For example, Jesus said he was the "bread that came down from heaven" but did they ever teach that there was "Real Presence" in the manna which literally came down from heaven?
They wouldn't, since the manna prefigured the Eucharist.
And if God was not "Real Present" in bread literally from heaven, Paul also says that God cannot be contained in that made with hands. My idea (and methodology) is scriptural.
You certainly base your view, in your understanding of Scripture, as do I; no argument here. We differ in our understanding of Scripture.
You admitted that the 'Real Presence" doctrine did meet all the qualifications for idolatry if "Real Presence" could not be established.
Correct.
More than admitted actually, you laid that on the table voluntarily.
Yes.
Please show (demonstrate and prove) the alleged logical fallacy. What is "logically void?"
Invalid.
1. The Real Presence concept is practiced by pagan mystery religions.
Was.
2. The Real Presence concept is not clearly implemented in scripture.
Begging the question. Invalid.
3. The Real Presence concept does depend on taking one statement as literal
There are multiple statements in John chapter six also.
that makes no common sense as literal but makes perfect sense as metaphor.
Begging the question.
4. (adding to above) The Real Presence concept certainly resembles idolatry on its face (your admission).
It resembles forms of it, I grant it. I also grant that these forms of idolatry resemble the Real Presence. These two are logically equivalent, but in setting out both of them, we avoid any hint of begging the question, as to whether one copied the other, or if they instead are independently derived. For example, pagan flood myths resemble the story of Noah, and the story of Noah resembles pagan flood myths.
5. (adding to above) The Real Presence concept does not have support from other scriptural practices that would have superior claim to "Real Presence application (Jesus said he is the manna from heaven, there was no Real Presence in the manna which decayed.)
Begging the question again. Catholicism believes that the manna, the shewbread, and the passover/Pasch are figures of, and fulfilled in, the Eucharist.
OK. Here's an excerpt: http://mtc.org/eucharst.html One of the oldest ceremonies of the Pagan religions, doctrine of transubstantiation not openly published until 800+ AD, not officially Catholic dogma until 1215 AD.
Transubstantiation is a footnote to the Real Presence, that is how they are related to each other. The Real Presence was believed from the first, while transubstantiation 'per se' was authorized later. Also, Orthodoxy does not believe in Catholic transubstantiation, but they most certainly believe in the Real Presence, and always have, just as has Catholicism.
PAGAN ORIGIN

The doctrine of transubstantiation does not date back to the Last Supper as is supposed. It was a controverted topic for many centuries before officially becoming an article of faith, which means that it is essential to salvation according to the Roman Catholic Church.
See above, that transubstantiation and the Real Presence are not synonymous. And the 'Catechism of the Catholic Church' is clear that salvation requires but faith alone in Christ.
The idea of a corporal presence was vaguely held by some, such as Ambrose
It was definitively held by at least Bishop of Antioch Ignatius in AD 107.
, but it was not until 831 A.D. that Paschasius Radbertus, a Benedictine monk, published a treatise openly advocating the doctrine of transubstantiation. Even then, for almost another four hundred years, theological war was waged over this teaching by bishops and people alike until at the Fourth Lateran Council in 1215 A.D., it was officially defined and canonized as a dogma.
Which means that the Church authorized it as authentic/Apostolic. Not everything that Apostles taught was right away uniformly recognized as such, due to the nature of the Apostles' ministry. They traveled all around the Mediterranean, to Greece, to Egypt, to Italy, and beyond, and they always taught the men they chose as bishops, and while certainly most every major point of the Christian faith was widely known, taught, believed, and practiced, it was not always known what every Apostle taught to every bishop, until all bishops gathered together and shared their stories with each other, comparing one Apostle's tradition with all the others that had been passed on through word-of-mouth from one bishop to the next, in each of theirs respective Apostolic lineage.
Like many of the beliefs and rites of Romanism
A pejorative, fyi.
, transubstantiation was first practiced by pagan religions. The noted historian Durant said that belief in transubstantiation as practiced by the priests of the Roman Catholic system is "one of the oldest ceremonies of primitive religion." The Story Of Civilization, p. 741. The syncretism and mysticism of the Middle East were great factors in influencing the West, particularly Italy. Roman Society From Nero To Marcus Aurelius, Dill. In Egypt priests would consecrate mest cakes which were supposed to be come the flesh of Osiris. Encyclopedia Of Religions, Vol. 2, p. 76. The idea of transubstantiation was also characteristic of the religion of Mithra whose sacraments of cakes and Haoma drink closely parallel the Catholic Eucharistic rite. Ibid.
'All very interesting as such. My problem with your view isn't the facts, it's your reading between the lines and making veiled fallacies, such as the Post Hoc Fallacy. None of these facts means that Christ Himself and His Apostles, didn't teach the Real Presence.
The idea of eating the flesh of deity was most popular among the people of Mexico and Central America long before they ever heard of Christ; and when Spanish missionaries first landed in those countries "their surprise was heightened, when they witnessed a religious rite which reminded them of communion...an image made of flour...and after consecration by priests, was distributed among the people who ate it...declaring it was the flesh of deity..." Prescott's Mexico, Vol. 3.
Then right here is evidence that the resemblance to European and Middle Eastern paganism could just be coincidence and independent of each other. Certainly the Church didn't copy Mayan or Incan pagans.
[FONT=&]Please consider that God has specifically stated that he does not want to be worshiped as the heathens do (see Jeremiah 10).[/FONT]
Fine. Since it is the words of the Lord Himself that supports the Church's belief in the Real Presence, I don't think that this qualifies as worshiping Him "as the heathens do [their 'gods']," since we're just taking His words literally.
I think Christians do well to eschew pagan customs, rituals, and superstitions all together.
Clearly. And I continue to maintain that the Catholic Church does not teach anything that contravenes or contradicts the Word of God.
Easter is not sacred: it's named after a pagan goddess and associated with fertility symbols (eggs, bunnies) etc.
Easter is the annual celebration of Christ's Resurrection, which is distinguished from the Eucharist, which celebrates His Resurrection at least each Sunday, the day upon which He rose. In fact though, many churches celebrate the Eucharist daily, if not at least on Saturdays and other Christian holy days, or on holy days' eves.
Non-Christians (that I know personally) know this and see a copycat religion that is about the ancient (pagan) traditions, not about Christ.
A problem of catechesis first and foremost, and after that, one of branding, probably. Also, an artifact of the Reformation, when the idea that the Real Presence is false, first reared its head, so far as can be known from all history. What I mean is that the Church right now is quite frayed in what we all believe and profess, so that non-Christians don't know definitively what are and what are not the articles of the authentic Christian faith.
You don't know about Samhain?
I've heard of it, but don't know about it, no.
It's the old word for Halloween
Ah.
, from the druids from which it was adopted.
All Hallows' Day (today 'All Saints' Day') is a Christian holy day. Halloween is the night before All Saints' Day.
The entire observance should have been avoided and abolished, not given the Catholic church stamp of approval.
When did Halloween costumery get "the Catholic Church stamp of approval?" And more than that, when did the Catholic Church instruct Halloween costumery? I know that she does not forbid it.
Which was not the argument.
You say that pagans believed something resembling the Real Presence, before the Church did, and that therefore the Church copied it from pagans. So what was your argument then, if not 'post hoc ergo propter hoc?'
But when Catholic traditions copy the pagan religions
See? This is also begging the question, since you presume that the Church copied pagans.
, and the only source is from the pagan religions (the tradition is not in scripture)
There is no pagan source for the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist. The operative word there is "Christ," and He is taught only by the Church.
then it would be the Catholic burden of proof to show that they were NOT derived from the pagan source.
Begging the question, since this is only true if your view is the truth, that the Church copied pagans in the belief in the Real Presence.
See above two paragraph sample, quoted. Link provided for further reading. I cannot paste whole research documents here. The scripture doesn't give any such clear command
This is begging the question, since I believe that it does, and have given my reasons for it, and you've not defeated them.
, but the support is very strong from pagan tradition.
There is zero support for the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, in pagan tradition. Again, the operative word is "Christ."
If it was a true Christian observance it should be as strong or stronger defined in scripture
And I say that it essentially couldn't be more strongly defined than what we have; the literal words of our Lord, taken literally.
(if it was even mimicked by pagans at all.)
I didn't claim that pagans mimicked the Church. It is instead likely that they are two independent things. But besides, there are many pagan traditions that resemble the Christian faith, such as deities who rise from the dead. Are you saying that therefore Christ's Resurrection is fictional, since the notion appears in pagan traditions, before AD 33? I don't think that you are, but your line of argument supports this claim also, along with your rejection of the Real Presence as being authentically Christian.
I've boldfaced the part in your logic above that goes awry. See previous documentation, the doctrine wasn't taught to the church by the apostles.
That wasn't the point. The point was that the Apostles chose all the first generation of bishops, and they all uniformly, according to your view, plunged into fatal error, in, according to your view, wrongly teaching and practicing the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist. And as I've continued to say, this is merely a literal reading of Mt26:26KJV, Mk14:22KJV, Lk22:19KJV, and 1Co11:24KJV. We disagree about whether His words are to be taken literally, but I can't agree with you that the Apostles did not teach the Real Presence, since it depends upon your own view being the truth, which, again, is begging the question.

But to repeat, my point here was that the men who did teach the Real Presence, were all chosen by the Apostles, so if the Real Presence is false, then they the Apostles must have been nincompoops, and I don't accept that possibility.
Hypothetically then, why not?
Well, I guess, really, you're your own answer to the question, because that is what you believe.
That is, don't we have example aplenty that men easily wander into idolatry almost instantly? Yes, they had the resurrection of Christ, but Israel had the parting of the Red Sea and the destruction of the world superpower Egypt. Yet they built the golden calf and the whole tribe of Dan plunged in idolatry almost instantly when they entered the promised land.
Then we're getting into what it means when Christ promised that "the gates of hell shall not prevail against" His Church (Mt16:18KJV). I believe that while what you say about idolatry was true in the Old Covenant, that the New Covenant is impervious to this tendency. I believe that the bishops' instruction in the Christian faith is preserved from error, such as them teaching that abject idolatry ought to be committed right in the heart of the Christian Mass.
I highlighted the part above that goes awry. My view of the Church and the Body of Christ is that she is scattered throughout the world as salt and light, not that it is an institutionalization like the church that calls itself Catholic.
That's a false dilemma.
I just follow the Scripture when it talks about the office of Bishop, and bishops are still around today. Since I accept that there is an authentic pastorate, I accept hierarchy in the administration and life of the Church, because there is some way in which bishops are higher than non-bishops within the Church, and, those whom I believe are the authentic bishops, teach that that way is in their authority to teach the Christian faith.
In other words, the Catholic Church is not the body of Christ, but there may be members of the body of Christ within the Catholic church.
I believe that the Catholic Church is the Body of Christ, and especially with the conditions that Catholics authentically believe in Christ, and that other Christians who believe in Christ (I call us "Catholics on the way to full communion") are also individual members of the Body/Church, though 'imperfectly' so, because we do not share Communion. So the Body of Christ is composed of probably everybody who you would think should be considered bona fide Christians, and while you're repelled by the language used, I think we agree on the underlying idea expressed, in different language.
What may seem morose is that the Catholic church seems to line up with every description of the woman that rides the beast. But should it be, if our faith is in Christ and not in men?
lmk which passages you're thinking of, so that we can discuss it.
For purposes of this discussion I do not know the Catechism of the Catholic Church.
OK. Here's a link in case you ever want to see what the Catholic bishops all authoritatively and uniformly teach.

http://www.vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/ccc_toc.htm

(There's an alphabetical index at the bottom, in case you wanted to see what they teach on particular matters.)
noun

  • 1.
    a member or follower of any of the Western Christian churches that are separate from the Roman Catholic Church and follow the principles of the Reformation, including the Baptist, Presbyterian, and Lutheran churches.

I am not defining myself as Protestant, as it implies following another set of defined principles. I do not have allegiance to Baptist, Presbyterian, Lutheran, or so forth. I might agree with particular principles or beliefs shared by some Protestants or some Catholics but that does not make me Protestant or Catholic.

And it's nice that we have some agreement on some things.
Well, OK. I was offering up the particular belief that historically separates Catholics from other Christians, at least in the West (Orthodoxy is not nearly as popular in the West as in the East, although, the Orthodox also reject the papacy as supreme pastorate of the Church, and have done so since the year 1054, when the Catholic and Orthodox churches separated). The reason that I focus particularly upon the rejection of the popes as supreme pastors of the Church, is because all other differences in belief descend logically from either the acceptance or rejection of this single belief.
When the pagans and Catholics can agree that they are not that different from each other, that they both pray to gods (saints) and they have the same practices in worship that doesn't help preach Christ.
If it were actually the case that Catholicism believes and teaches that Christians pray to "gods" when we pray to Saints, then I would agree with you, but since this isn't the case, this is a straw man.
I am not speaking hypothetically, I am speaking thinking of real people (pagan and Catholic) that said they were in agreement in this way.
I can't speak for what every individual Catholic believes, but I can speak for what the Catholic bishops authoritatively teach, and they do not teach that praying to Saints is praying to "gods."
The pagan also later said that Catholic and Christian were different things.
That is a direct result of the Reformation---of Protestantism---in the West.
So, if the question is "corrupted" vs "enhanced?" I'd say corrupted. Poison taints that which is pure, the purity does not destroy the poison.
And my position is that the poisonous contamination is removed, when/before the Church has appropriated pagan customs. There's nothing left in them that offends the Word of God, and that by design.
No, all wafer Eucharist bread is literally made with hands or machines. It does not descend from heaven, any more than a silver idol that is reputed to house a literal god descends from heaven. That bread is an edible work of the hands, the silver is in inedible work of the hands. It doesn't matter if one purports that it becomes possessed with a real god or Gods.
Well, we disagree, because I think that it does matter, and very much so.
The manna was consumed of worms. It is prophesied that the flesh of Christ should not see corruption.
It didn't, and it doesn't.
It was simply food.
It prefigured the Eucharist, along with the shewbread, and the passover/Pasch.
I haven't studied early bishops in depth, but power structure and control are a natural human tendency and corruption.
Corruption is inevitable when there is real power involved. The bishops didn't have much in the way of power before Constantine, in fact it was the opposite, the bishops were frequently those Christians with the largest targets on their backs whenever their pagan neighbors and rulers capriciously and wantonly and criminally decided that it was time for yet another culling of the Christian herd, through horrifically cruel and unusual punishments, sometimes done publicly as a spectacle. Some Christians were dismembered but kept alive, while their pieces and parts were fed to wild animals right in front of them, just as one example, all for refusing to engage in idolatry. It'd be a terrible irony, and one that I reject, if all these glorious martyrs were themselves engaging in idolatry all along, in believing in the Real Presence.
And please remember, I consider the church to be the people in Christ regardless of where they are located, not a brand name (like Roman, Presbyterian, etc).
I object to your characterization of Catholicism as "a brand name," but otherwise, we agree, and so does Catholicism. Orthodoxy, though, as an aside? I'm not sure what the Orthodox believe about who is and who is not a bona fide Christian. Catholicism makes believing in Christ the sine qua non of being an authentic Christian, whether or not we are Catholics.
Question: what befalls someone who NEVER takes a mass ceremony? I mean never ever. Or at least not never ever from an "ordained" priest?
Well that describes me, so far. What befalls me? I am missing out on a gift from the Lord, through which we are able to commune with Him and with each other in a unique, and a uniquely Christian, way.
Like the way the church wrote on (positively) on "the persecution of heretics?" Like Tertullian? Or tried reading Foxe's Book of Martyrs?
I asked you, "'Now?' Where?" This answer means to me, "Not 'Now.' Back then." But I didn't ask about back then, because when I wrote, "'Now?'" I was quoting you. So are you 'walking back' your "now?"
And how do you distinguish this from instituting some other invented Latin word for worship of vines, rocks, lambs, etc?
Which sacrament(s) involves the "worship of vines, rocks, lambs, etc?" Different context. Apples and oranges.
No, it's not. Worshiping that which is fashioned with hands IS idolatry, we are commanded not to do it specifically, and you are asking for a special exception to this well established rule repeated in both old and new testaments. God never states an exception.
We just disagree that the Lord saying, "This is My body," is literal, or figurative / metaphorical / symbolic, because if He was being literal, then we worship Christ, and not something "fashioned with hands." It's begging the question.
You also have no place where you can show that the bread and wine are defined as literal flesh and blood. Such a statement as "this is my flesh, this is my blood" would be symbolic by default (else it would be cannibalism, which was understood as very evil by all mankind.) Given this understanding, you should be able to show explicit undeniable statement that "this is actually literal" if it was actually literal.
All words are presumed to be literal unless there is compelling reason to think otherwise. I think we agree on that, we just disagree that there is sufficient warrant to think that Christ was being metaphorical / symbolic / figurative when He instituted the Eucharist.
But consider, didn't they give the shewbread to David to eat, him and his soldiers, as if it was in reality simply food?
Christ, in instituting the fulfillment of the manna and of the shewbread and of the passover/Pasch, says, "This is My body," He wasn't saying that the bread represented Him or His presence, He said that the bread was literally Him. It's very meaningful for those of us who believe in the Real Presence, was my point.
 

7djengo7

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I am not offended,

Super.

I was pointing out that "wafer worship" is objectively and patently offensive and incendiary.

Seeing as you, for one, claim to not be offended by the phrase "wafer worship", what, exactly, do you mean by saying that the phrase is "objectively" offensive? Who is offended by the phrase "wafer worship"? And why are they offended by it, whereas you are not offended by it? Which is the better, more honorable and right-thinking way to be? Is it better to be offended by it than to not be offended by it, or, is it better to not be offended by it than to be offended by it? Should you be offended by the phrase, "wafer worship"? If so, then why aren't you?

Because Catholicism believes in the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, it isn't "wafer worship" but Christ worship.

Should a person who believes that

1. Rome's flock are, indeed, worshiping something in their rite which they call "the Eucharist", and that
2. Rome's flock are, in that rite, NOT worshiping Christ, and that
3. Rome's flock are, in that rite, worshiping a wafer--

should such a person, who believes those things, and despite believing those things, go against his/her conscience, against his/her reason, and against what he/she believes is plainly taught in Scripture, by saying, "Oh, yeah! You're not worshiping a wafer at all! No, you're actually worshiping Christ"?

What you find "objectively and patently offensive and incendiary" is the fact that others dissent from, and deny, the things that you expect them to believe. It's an arrogance thing, a power thing.

As such, if the Real Presence is the truth, then adoring the Eucharist is one of the most Christian things to do.

You say that the doctrine you call "the Real Presence" is the truth, as if you're right and as if those who say that it is not the truth are wrong. Pure hypocrisy from you.

I know that we disagree on the Real Presence, but anytime you address it as if you're right and we're wrong, you're engaging in deliberate offense and begging the question, and "wafer worship" is precisely both those things.

So, you're also engaging in deliberate offense and begging the question by addressing the issue as if you're right and we're wrong, and calling your rite "Christ worship" is precisely both those things.

Do you think people should go about affirming things they believe as if they are wrong in believing/affirming them, instead of as if they are right in affirming them? For instance, should people affirm that Peter was a bishop of Rome as if they are wrong in affirming it, and as if those who deny that Peter was a bishop of Rome are right in denying it? And, should people who deny that Peter was a bishop of Rome deny it as if they are wrong in denying it, and as if those who affirm that Peter was a bishop of Rome are right in affirming it? (Try answering each of those two questions as if you are wrong in how you answer them, and as if one who answers them in a contrary manner to how you answer them is right in how he/she answers them.)

Should people, when reading the things you, yourself, affirm, take you to be affirming them as if you are wrong, and as if those who affirm the contrary are right?

What, exactly, would you say it is for a person to affirm something he/she believes, but not as if he/she is right? Can it be done? Show us an example; affirm something you believe as if you're wrong in believing it, and as if someone is right in denying it.

Because Catholicism believes in the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, it isn't "wafer worship" but Christ worship.

Interesting. You must, then, agree with each of the following two items:

1. Because helio-centrists believe the earth revolves around the sun, the real state of affairs isn't geo-centrism, but helio-centrism.

2. Because geo-centrists believe the sun revolves around the earth, the real state of affairs isn't helio-centrism, but geo-centrism.

And, you must agree with this one, too:

Because many believe that Christ is not bodily present in the Eucharist, it isn't Christ-worship, but wafer-worship.
 

7djengo7

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Rosenritter asked you:

Question: what befalls someone who NEVER takes a mass ceremony? I mean never ever. Or at least not never ever from an "ordained" priest?

And, your response was:

Well that describes me, so far. What befalls me? I am missing out on a gift from the Lord, through which we are able to commune with Him and with each other in a unique, and a uniquely Christian, way.

Now, in John 6:51 KJV, Jesus said:

I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.

Have
you eaten of that bread spoken of by Jesus, here? If not, why not? And, if you have not, what do you say about the part about living forever? Admitting you haven't eaten of that bread, can you, right here, right now, say that you shall live forever? Can you be sure, even, that you shall eat of that bread?

Here's your problem: even if you eventually do participate as a communicant in that rite you call "the Eucharist", you will, it seems, by your own (or at least Rome's) admission, still not have eaten of that bread. Why not? Because, according to you, and Rome, no bread is eaten in the eating of the Eucharist! And, since Jesus clearly said that the bread He will give to eat is His flesh, and you take His words literally, then, by not eating bread in the eating of the Eucharist, you will, necessarily, not be eating Jesus' flesh in the eating of the Eucharist. If you haven't eaten the bread, then you haven't eaten Jesus' flesh, and, since Rome's priests, in their Eucharist rite, have never given Rome's communicants bread to eat, Rome's communicants have never even eaten Jesus' flesh. Do you disagree with Jesus, where He says, in that verse, that the bread is His flesh?
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Your premise is flawed. For example, when John declares "Behold, the Lamb of God" does he mean to metaphorically behold, or did he mean you could see him with your own eyes? And when he said "God" did he mean really God, or just a figurative god?

John 1:29 KJV
(29) The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

John 1:36 KJV
(36) And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God!

Revelation 7:10 KJV
(10) And cried with a loud voice, saying, Salvation to our God which sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb.

Revelation 7:17 KJV
(17) For the Lamb which is in the midst of the throne shall feed them, and shall lead them unto living fountains of waters: and God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes.

Revelation 14:4 KJV
(4) These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are virgins. These are they which follow the Lamb whithersoever he goeth. These were redeemed from among men, being the firstfruits unto God and to the Lamb.

Using your same method of interpretation for Real Presence of Jesus in wafers made by the hands of man, Jesus is also literally a lamb, with just as man or more verses for support.
So yes or no?
A different question: why are the wafers round?
idk. I do know that parishes in the US can provide their own host if the parish wants to do that instead of the round ones. Some do. Most don't. But the opportunity is there. idk if it's Rome who decides this, or if it's the national bishops' conferences.
 

Idolater

"Matthew 16:18-19" Dispensationalist (Catholic) χρ
Is there a special rule that Jesus must be administering an instruction of some sort for us to interpret his words in a bizarre manner that defy common sense?
:plain:
"Eat, this is my body" still remains obvious symbolism
To you. Begging the question.
, as what he handed them to eat was broken Passover bread.

1 Corinthians 11:25-26 KJV
(25) After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.
(26) For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

No, I don't call it a sacrament, but I do think that this is a proper observance that was instituted by Christ, for this specific memorial.
It is good to agree upon whatever we can, so I'm glad we can at least find common ground here. There are Dispensationalists for example who do not agree with us, that the Lord's Supper ought to be celebrated by the Body of Christ.
 

Rosenritter

New member
OK. I think rather that they rightly thought it, and due to perhaps what He said in comparison with Lev17:10KJV, Lev17:12KJV, and Lev17:14KJV. So Christ appeared to them to be teaching contrary to the Word of God---them not recognizing Him as God Himself, so their contention was of course invalid.
OK. But then you do admit therefore that partaking of the bread and of the cup unworthily is grave sin? And what do you suppose that the penalty for this grave sin is?
Then who is your bishop? You're reading about bishops in the New Testament, and from where I'm sitting, it looks like you subscribe to something like the 'cessation of gifts,' only instead it's the cessation of bishops. You also seem to me to be substituting "Scripture" in, for example, 1st Timothy 3:15 KJV, where instead it reads that it is the Church, and not the Scripture, that is "the pillar and ground of the truth." This of course doesn't say that the Scripture isn't also true, but it does move the Christian faith beyond the written letter, and into the living pastorate, who, nonetheless, are powerless to contravene the Scripture.
They wouldn't, since the manna prefigured the Eucharist.
You certainly base your view, in your understanding of Scripture, as do I; no argument here. We differ in our understanding of Scripture.
Correct.
Yes.
Invalid.
Was.
Begging the question. Invalid.
There are multiple statements in John chapter six also.
Begging the question.
It resembles forms of it, I grant it. I also grant that these forms of idolatry resemble the Real Presence. These two are logically equivalent, but in setting out both of them, we avoid any hint of begging the question, as to whether one copied the other, or if they instead are independently derived. For example, pagan flood myths resemble the story of Noah, and the story of Noah resembles pagan flood myths.
Begging the question again. Catholicism believes that the manna, the shewbread, and the passover/Pasch are figures of, and fulfilled in, the Eucharist.
Transubstantiation is a footnote to the Real Presence, that is how they are related to each other. The Real Presence was believed from the first, while transubstantiation 'per se' was authorized later. Also, Orthodoxy does not believe in Catholic transubstantiation, but they most certainly believe in the Real Presence, and always have, just as has Catholicism.
See above, that transubstantiation and the Real Presence are not synonymous. And the 'Catechism of the Catholic Church' is clear that salvation requires but faith alone in Christ.
It was definitively held by at least Bishop of Antioch Ignatius in AD 107.
Which means that the Church authorized it as authentic/Apostolic. Not everything that Apostles taught was right away uniformly recognized as such, due to the nature of the Apostles' ministry. They traveled all around the Mediterranean, to Greece, to Egypt, to Italy, and beyond, and they always taught the men they chose as bishops, and while certainly most every major point of the Christian faith was widely known, taught, believed, and practiced, it was not always known what every Apostle taught to every bishop, until all bishops gathered together and shared their stories with each other, comparing one Apostle's tradition with all the others that had been passed on through word-of-mouth from one bishop to the next, in each of theirs respective Apostolic lineage.
A pejorative, fyi.
'All very interesting as such. My problem with your view isn't the facts, it's your reading between the lines and making veiled fallacies, such as the Post Hoc Fallacy. None of these facts means that Christ Himself and His Apostles, didn't teach the Real Presence.
Then right here is evidence that the resemblance to European and Middle Eastern paganism could just be coincidence and independent of each other. Certainly the Church didn't copy Mayan or Incan pagans.
Fine. Since it is the words of the Lord Himself that supports the Church's belief in the Real Presence, I don't think that this qualifies as worshiping Him "as the heathens do [their 'gods']," since we're just taking His words literally.
Clearly. And I continue to maintain that the Catholic Church does not teach anything that contravenes or contradicts the Word of God.
Easter is the annual celebration of Christ's Resurrection, which is distinguished from the Eucharist, which celebrates His Resurrection at least each Sunday, the day upon which He rose. In fact though, many churches celebrate the Eucharist daily, if not at least on Saturdays and other Christian holy days, or on holy days' eves.
A problem of catechesis first and foremost, and after that, one of branding, probably. Also, an artifact of the Reformation, when the idea that the Real Presence is false, first reared its head, so far as can be known from all history. What I mean is that the Church right now is quite frayed in what we all believe and profess, so that non-Christians don't know definitively what are and what are not the articles of the authentic Christian faith.
I've heard of it, but don't know about it, no.
Ah.
All Hallows' Day (today 'All Saints' Day') is a Christian holy day. Halloween is the night before All Saints' Day.
When did Halloween costumery get "the Catholic Church stamp of approval?" And more than that, when did the Catholic Church instruct Halloween costumery? I know that she does not forbid it.
You say that pagans believed something resembling the Real Presence, before the Church did, and that therefore the Church copied it from pagans. So what was your argument then, if not 'post hoc ergo propter hoc?'
See? This is also begging the question, since you presume that the Church copied pagans.
There is no pagan source for the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist. The operative word there is "Christ," and He is taught only by the Church.
Begging the question, since this is only true if your view is the truth, that the Church copied pagans in the belief in the Real Presence.
This is begging the question, since I believe that it does, and have given my reasons for it, and you've not defeated them.
There is zero support for the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, in pagan tradition. Again, the operative word is "Christ."
And I say that it essentially couldn't be more strongly defined than what we have; the literal words of our Lord, taken literally.
I didn't claim that pagans mimicked the Church. It is instead likely that they are two independent things. But besides, there are many pagan traditions that resemble the Christian faith, such as deities who rise from the dead. Are you saying that therefore Christ's Resurrection is fictional, since the notion appears in pagan traditions, before AD 33? I don't think that you are, but your line of argument supports this claim also, along with your rejection of the Real Presence as being authentically Christian.
That wasn't the point. The point was that the Apostles chose all the first generation of bishops, and they all uniformly, according to your view, plunged into fatal error, in, according to your view, wrongly teaching and practicing the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist. And as I've continued to say, this is merely a literal reading of Mt26:26KJV, Mk14:22KJV, Lk22:19KJV, and 1Co11:24KJV. We disagree about whether His words are to be taken literally, but I can't agree with you that the Apostles did not teach the Real Presence, since it depends upon your own view being the truth, which, again, is begging the question.

But to repeat, my point here was that the men who did teach the Real Presence, were all chosen by the Apostles, so if the Real Presence is false, then they the Apostles must have been nincompoops, and I don't accept that possibility.
Well, I guess, really, you're your own answer to the question, because that is what you believe.
Then we're getting into what it means when Christ promised that "the gates of hell shall not prevail against" His Church (Mt16:18KJV). I believe that while what you say about idolatry was true in the Old Covenant, that the New Covenant is impervious to this tendency. I believe that the bishops' instruction in the Christian faith is preserved from error, such as them teaching that abject idolatry ought to be committed right in the heart of the Christian Mass.
That's a false dilemma.
I just follow the Scripture when it talks about the office of Bishop, and bishops are still around today. Since I accept that there is an authentic pastorate, I accept hierarchy in the administration and life of the Church, because there is some way in which bishops are higher than non-bishops within the Church, and, those whom I believe are the authentic bishops, teach that that way is in their authority to teach the Christian faith.
I believe that the Catholic Church is the Body of Christ, and especially with the conditions that Catholics authentically believe in Christ, and that other Christians who believe in Christ (I call us "Catholics on the way to full communion") are also individual members of the Body/Church, though 'imperfectly' so, because we do not share Communion. So the Body of Christ is composed of probably everybody who you would think should be considered bona fide Christians, and while you're repelled by the language used, I think we agree on the underlying idea expressed, in different language.
lmk which passages you're thinking of, so that we can discuss it.
OK. Here's a link in case you ever want to see what the Catholic bishops all authoritatively and uniformly teach.

http://www.vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/ccc_toc.htm

(There's an alphabetical index at the bottom, in case you wanted to see what they teach on particular matters.)
Well, OK. I was offering up the particular belief that historically separates Catholics from other Christians, at least in the West (Orthodoxy is not nearly as popular in the West as in the East, although, the Orthodox also reject the papacy as supreme pastorate of the Church, and have done so since the year 1054, when the Catholic and Orthodox churches separated). The reason that I focus particularly upon the rejection of the popes as supreme pastors of the Church, is because all other differences in belief descend logically from either the acceptance or rejection of this single belief.
If it were actually the case that Catholicism believes and teaches that Christians pray to "gods" when we pray to Saints, then I would agree with you, but since this isn't the case, this is a straw man.
I can't speak for what every individual Catholic believes, but I can speak for what the Catholic bishops authoritatively teach, and they do not teach that praying to Saints is praying to "gods."
That is a direct result of the Reformation---of Protestantism---in the West.
And my position is that the poisonous contamination is removed, when/before the Church has appropriated pagan customs. There's nothing left in them that offends the Word of God, and that by design.
Well, we disagree, because I think that it does matter, and very much so.
It didn't, and it doesn't.
It prefigured the Eucharist, along with the shewbread, and the passover/Pasch.
Corruption is inevitable when there is real power involved. The bishops didn't have much in the way of power before Constantine, in fact it was the opposite, the bishops were frequently those Christians with the largest targets on their backs whenever their pagan neighbors and rulers capriciously and wantonly and criminally decided that it was time for yet another culling of the Christian herd, through horrifically cruel and unusual punishments, sometimes done publicly as a spectacle. Some Christians were dismembered but kept alive, while their pieces and parts were fed to wild animals right in front of them, just as one example, all for refusing to engage in idolatry. It'd be a terrible irony, and one that I reject, if all these glorious martyrs were themselves engaging in idolatry all along, in believing in the Real Presence.
I object to your characterization of Catholicism as "a brand name," but otherwise, we agree, and so does Catholicism. Orthodoxy, though, as an aside? I'm not sure what the Orthodox believe about who is and who is not a bona fide Christian. Catholicism makes believing in Christ the sine qua non of being an authentic Christian, whether or not we are Catholics.
Well that describes me, so far. What befalls me? I am missing out on a gift from the Lord, through which we are able to commune with Him and with each other in a unique, and a uniquely Christian, way.
I asked you, "'Now?' Where?" This answer means to me, "Not 'Now.' Back then." But I didn't ask about back then, because when I wrote, "'Now?'" I was quoting you. So are you 'walking back' your "now?"
Which sacrament(s) involves the "worship of vines, rocks, lambs, etc?" Different context. Apples and oranges.
We just disagree that the Lord saying, "This is My body," is literal, or figurative / metaphorical / symbolic, because if He was being literal, then we worship Christ, and not something "fashioned with hands." It's begging the question.
All words are presumed to be literal unless there is compelling reason to think otherwise. I think we agree on that, we just disagree that there is sufficient warrant to think that Christ was being metaphorical / symbolic / figurative when He instituted the Eucharist.
Christ, in instituting the fulfillment of the manna and of the shewbread and of the passover/Pasch, says, "This is My body," He wasn't saying that the bread represented Him or His presence, He said that the bread was literally Him. It's very meaningful for those of us who believe in the Real Presence, was my point.

That was too long. And then it "token expired" and erased everything. Let's shorten this?

1. You cannot presume that Christ speaks literally at any time, because he is specifically said to speak in proverb and parable.

2. Even if you were to presume Christ normally spoke in literal terms (which defies example) there is compelling reason to believe he means otherwise. Specifically because Jesus was NOT literally bread and this could be plainly seen.

3. All the arguments of "apostolic succession" and "church authority" are nil as far as I am concerned. I consider the Catholic church to be one corrupt church of many, and even specifically designated in Revelation 17 and 18.

4. If you actually believe that Christ's real meaning was "I am literally bread" when he said to take and eat, then you cannot have eternal life unless you literally eat his flesh and drink his blood (the Eucharist.) You said you have never partaken of that Eucharist, so by what you have already accepted, you are damned. The understanding (my understanding) that the bread and wine represented his sacrifice as symbols mean that we must accept him and his sacrifice in the meaning of John 3:16
 

Rosenritter

New member
So yes or no?

Jesus has never been a literal lamb or literal bread. I'm consistent in this answer. However, I don't know why you wouldn't say he was also a literal lamb if you were being consistent as well.

idk. I do know that parishes in the US can provide their own host if the parish wants to do that instead of the round ones. Some do. Most don't. But the opportunity is there. idk if it's Rome who decides this, or if it's the national bishops' conferences.

I am asking because one of my books that I was putting away on my bookshelf had mention of specific emphasis on the Eucharist being round. I didn't read it further but marked the page and thought I'd ask you first before opening it up again. Do you know of any Catholic church that actually breaks the bread as Christ instituted? or are the wafers always round?
 
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