False assumption. I don't sell alcohol or any drug. In fact, I don't sell anything.
Obviously the subtlety of my figure of speech eluded you.
You're selling alcohol right now, by telling people its okay, even God-approved, when it isn't. Its an industrial solvent and systemic poison.
How's that? Paul, who shaved his head in Acts 18:18 and had a company of 4 men shave their heads in Acts 21:24, turned out alright? When and how did that happen, because I thought you said that getting a haircut was a Roman practice, and that we are not to "imitate sinful heathen practices, even in jest" (your words).
Paul didn't just get a haircut, as I'm sure you're aware: He went into the temple to have the priest do this, so that the hair could be burnt on the altar. This act signifies either the start, or the end, or the renewal of a Nazarite vow, as I'm sure you are aware.
Going to a Roman barbershop is nothing of the kind, and is a heathen practice classed as an abomination in the Torah.
And didn't Paul say in 1 Corinthians 11:14 that it is shameful for a man to have long hair?
No. The Romans said that. From the obvious internal evidence, 1st Corinthians is actually 2nd Corinthians (1st Cor. 5:9 etc.), and has been rewritten by the collector of Paul's letters: that would be the Roman church.
Again, you need to read the word carefully and know it better.
Let's reconsider Jesus' words in the gospel of Matthew:
"But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom."
Sure lets consider it: Oh look, the word "henceforth" isn't in the Greek, nor is it implied:
"Πιετε εξ αυτου παντες.
...λεγω δε υμιν οτι
ου μη πιω απ αρτι εκ τουτου γεννηματος της αμπελου,
εως της ημερας εκεινης οταν αυτο πινω μεθ' υμων καινον
εν τη βασιλεια του Πατρος μου."
"YOU drink out of it, all of you!....
...But I say to you that
By no means will Idrink, from this very moment out of this, generated from the vine,
[not generated from fermentation,]
until that day, when I will drink it with you anew
in the Kingdom of My Father." (Matt. 26:27b-29!)
Again you tried to chop the speech in half, leaving the first half out, and misleading all the readers of your quotation!
Jesus' word begins in the last half of Matt.26:27.
With both halves of Jesus' saying together, and coordinated by the "δε" (" - but..."), His speech makes perfect sense. He picks up the cup as High Priest, which contains symbolically His own blood, and of course HE doesn't drink it! He gives it to His disciples.
As He has done so many times before in His public ministry, here Jesus AMPLIFIES something formerly ordinary, something from the O.T., the Torah (the Passover Cup), and totally changes its meaning, then at the same time takes the Nazarite Vow of Holiness, and AMPLIFIES THAT TOO, beyond all lame norms: "until the Kingdom of My Father comes!"
Thats His vow! He doesn't pause to finish off a bottle of wine between His previous vow and the next. He rushes right to the finish, by starting a vow so heavy, so huge, so "impossible", that it can hardly be less than astounding.
For everyone knows, 'you
make a vow, you
keep it, pal!'
Nor would the mocking of Jesus by shoving 'oinos' in his face on a sponge, and His refusing to drink it mean anything, until this VOW was accomplished.
If you are able, try to put aside for a moment the shock you must feel at the thought of people drinking such an unholy substance as "oinos" in heaven, and consider the wording of this passage.
"oinos" isn't unholy, unless it is fermented into alcohol.
Thats why all yeast must be completely removed even from the home for 8 days during the eating of unleavened bread.
The only shock I'm feeling, is at your ineptness at handling the Holy Scriptures, and your incomprehension of what a logical syllogism requires.
"from this point on". This means that prior to that pronouncement, Jesus had been drinking "oinos" with his disciples.
This means nothing of the kind, until you try to give that impression by leaving out half the speech.
The word "henceforth" requires a separation of what came before with what will come after, until a third event takes place (namely, drinking it anew with them in his Father's kingdom).
If Jesus had not been drinking "oinos" with disciples, there would have been no reason for him to use that word.
Wrong again. If I go to the temple to renew a vow, I am not required to drink wine when one vow ends and another begins. Even you must concede that wine drinking is voluntary. The Law doesn't require it when renewing a vow.
There is one obvious reason why Jesus and friends WOULD use that word (oinos). Its part of the Passover ritual and tradition. The passover ritual does not REQUIRE anyone to drink oinos, or wine, or grape-juice either. ANY lifelong Nazarite (such as Samson or John Baptist for instance) would not be required to drink grapejuice, let alone wine, even though it was permitted to ordinary Israelites during the passover.
Passover does not make oinos mandatory, but it does provide a context for using the word, and an opportunity for Jesus to hijack a symbol.