Theology Club: Does Open Theism Question/dispute the Omniscience of God

Rosenritter

New member
Imho, you are confused for good or ill of the misunderstood. It also seems to presume you are entitled to a 'free' will explanation in such a court case, as if you are on par with God and somehow 'deserving' as an owned creation, some kind of explanation or listening ear from the God of the universe. To me? It looks audacious and self-important, certainly not a show of humility nor understanding its fruit in the Christian life. It is pretty 'American' in sentiment, but I'm not sure if it is entirely 'Christian' in interest and theological concern at that point. If so, show me some scriptures that drive this 'fair demands before God' kind of theology. Sorry that it looks this way to me but it does look about this audacious and self-interested, self-willed, and self-important to me.

Aw, poor Joe. It is a little like feeling bad for poor Ted Bundy who "couldn't help himself" isn't it? I don't know if Ted had a choice. He was certainly addicted to atrocious murder. Point? He "deserved" the death penalty for the crime REGARDLESS if he could stop or not. If you disagree, that disagreement is stark. Question: Is it based on your thinking that "Ted had a choice" that causes you to rightly condemn the evil behavior? My counter argument is that evil has consequences REGARDLESS if you are capable of stopping from doing that behavior or not. If NOT, somebody else HAS to stop you/them/him/her. It doesn't matter, further, who stops the behavior, just that it stops. You, here, are more worried about 'feelings' and 'guilt' than that atrocity stops and that whatever it takes to stop the atrocious is 'just' by definition. You are calling such 'double-minded' and 'insane' and I'm saying your point of view and reference of love and justice is incomplete imho. It 'looks' immature in understanding to me. :think:



And I would point out that no, in fact it points to an immature and NOT well-developed understanding of love and justice and the legitimate needs of consequences. It 'seems' to me, a lot of expression here is from the point of view "all about me" rather than really trying to seek and understand what is genuinely just for everyone involved. I've used this, for instance, as (imho) a 'better' example: a village contracts a fatal disease. The rest of the world is in danger of contracting and dying. Is wiping out that village evil? Did any of them want the disease? They may all be culpable for it, but it really isn't a 'simple' matter of justice at that point. It is a matter of what the Owner of all creation deems best WITHOUT your singular sense of right and wrong, love, or justice. You frankly aren't God and 'seem' to me, to be putting yourself in His place here and judging the Calvinists of the world. So be it, but you are going to have to answer for such. It seems, to me, a bit graceless and a bit immature/premature/ and near-sighted to me *(if that's fair for me to say and I'm not out of line). Looking for your rebuttal. -Lon

It still doesn't answer the dilemma. If God defines the meaning of love and then says He is love and commands for us to be perfect in love just as He is in love, then you cannot have one standard of love for humans and then have a lower standard of love (that most people would recognize as not only unjust but also evil) for God. When it comes to standards, God is supposed to be HIGHER, not lower.

No, it is not "immature" to recognize that kidnapping someone and then trying them for the trespass that you forced upon them is unjust. God says that he will deal with those that sin against him, and our same God also says that his ways are equal (JUST) that he wills the wicked to repent and change. Exodus 32:33, Ezekiel 18 & 33.

Ezekiel 18:26-29 KJV
(26) When a righteous man turneth away from his righteousness, and committeth iniquity, and dieth in them; for his iniquity that he hath done shall he die.
(27) Again, when the wicked man turneth away from his wickedness that he hath committed, and doeth that which is lawful and right, he shall save his soul alive.
(28) Because he considereth, and turneth away from all his transgressions that he hath committed, he shall surely live, he shall not die.
(29) Yet saith the house of Israel, The way of the Lord is not equal. O house of Israel, are not my ways equal? are not your ways unequal?

So the entire concept of making man that has no possibility of repentance? That's not God. That's expressly against His revealed character. This isn't "immature American theology" ... this is the law and the prophets.
 

Lon

Well-known member
So...Christians never sin? Or are you saying that when they sin it is really what Christ wanted them to do???
Romans 7:17 :think:
"IF" I'm at all responsible for my will, instead of the Lord Jesus Christ, then I don't believe I am or can be saved 2 Corinthians 5:17 1 Corinthians 6:19,20 Christ's work has stepped in and eradicated the consequences of my will and has redeemed all ensuing consequences of 'my will' making it null and void and Hiswill of the only consequence. I'm not exactly swallowed up in Christ's identity, there is still a Lon in existence. Saying that, however, the only thing I really know of the Apostle Paul is what He did in Christ and for Christ. I know nothing else of 'his' will but rather "HIS" will regarding the Apostle.

Do we throw out truth if it's too simplistic? Bye bye gospel! My position, after immersing myself in Calvinism for 15 years, and being brought up in something akin to Arminianism for the 30 years prior to that, is that an open view of the future fits the bible better. I'm sorry if it is too simple for you; I can't help that.
:nono: The gospel is simple but NOT simplistic. I have to entirely disagree here. It cost the Lord Jesus Christ His life. That wasn't/isn't "easy to explain" imho. Simple love? Yes but not simplistic. I disagree.
Drop the "free" if it makes the conversation better for you. You are free to do so. :)
My inclination is to skip this, but my will is of little consequence. God will have His way and you and I will but follow it to the end and hopefully learn having gone through such discussion. I'm a little and insignificant person on my own John 15:5
A will to disobey Christ is sinful. Is that one that is controlled by Christ or by Satan? If by Christ, then His is a divided kingdom. If by Satan, then there's not much I can do about it--I'm not in control of "my" will.
Agree. Rather, it all depends upon the Cross, no?

But this is a bait-and-switch.
:nono: You just said it: 'not much I can do...' In the world God is the Mover and Shaker, you and I but for a few Billy Graham's here, and a Ravi Zacharias there, aren't seen. "Our" will is all for not in such a grand scheme (and rightly so). RATHER it is 'if' we espoused His will that anything at all matters. Honestly, that is my desire in life, to know Him and make HIM known. I'm of no consequence other than having the blessing of being His. NOBODY NEEDS Lon. They NEED Jesus. Lon's will ONLY counts when it is following the will of the Lord Jesus Christ.

It doesn't matter if there's a "draw", only if it's the truth. We don't get to choose truth, no matter how much freewill we have or don't have.
Which isn't far from my understanding. We aren't free in this respect in agreement. It really is His will or not-His-will. Only His will counts for anything, not just 'counts' but amounts to anything. All else is to be wiped out. Us? Wood hay and stubble BUT for what He has rendered in us. 1 Corinthians 3:12-15


Is God's decretal will in conflict with His permissive will? Of course you'll say "no", but it has to be, if His will is both that all men repent and that some men don't repent and are cast into hell forever, or that both all the Israelites were to follow the commands of God, and some were to disobey, as ordained before time began. If a conflict is never good, can God's dual will be good?
Not quite: His permissive will is done, not that it is thwarted, thus 'conflict' isn't the right question. It is neither in conflict nor exactly the same. I'm not God so going even this far is a bit too far in speculation. I'm simply not God, and simply understand where 'my' prowess ends, His hasn't even been touched yet (as I've been trying to convey here in thread to Rosen as well). An illustration: I've gone further in mathematics than a few, BUT I've not gone into quantum mechanics or even higher physics. I'm aware thus, that I'm above my 'basic math' peers and below my higher math peers. I can carry a conversation only so far AND mathematicians are only able to describe consequently, how far they themselves have gone in math. There are levels to the 'apprehension' of truth. Mathematic truths do not change, apprehension of them is limited to every finite man's "ability" to grasp.

Conversely, I truly believe the things of God are truths that are varied in apprehension and ability to comprehend. Here, I believe a simple conflict between God's decretive and prescriptive will is insufficient assessment. Rather, God's prescriptive will is remedial: It is all aimed at bringing back those redeemed to a true state of redemption. Thus one will of God is given to us irrevocable and the other is given to a developing people as they need for God's overall plan. It isn't thus in conflict, but rather in stage "there to here and not yet the final desire."


If you're fighting against the "institution" of Open Theism, then I don't qualify as a valid representative. If you're ok discussing the idea of open theism, I'm ready and waiting.
No problem, just needs to be addressed between the two whenever you depart and thanks.

But I think I'm correct on the general position in the first instance. I haven't read much of Enyart's stuff here. If you can point that particular thing out to me, I'll look it over. I've seen where Enyart puts the omnis and ims as less important than other qualities of God, and that may be appropriate, depending on how it is worded.
Here Enyart makes a rookie mistake and says that the Omni's are philosophical rather than Biblical. Such IS an admission that not only are they 'less important' but deemed 'unbiblical.' :doh: At one time I confronted that notion with 'almighty' being a biblical given but not redaction has ever been presented. Open Theists do not believe the biblical Omni's, are biblical. It is very important to recognize where you agree or depart with them upon this important point of doctrinal issue regarding the very character of God. It is essential that biblical definitions be adhered to. Heresy, according to Protestants, is a 'departure from the clear teaching of scriptures.' A departure from "God almighty" for instance, is a departure from being anything Christian/biblical.
It's nice to know that my house loves me. It unselfishly keeps me warm and dry, without which i might die of exposure.
It is actually a comparison/illustration that undoes your argument: Your house warms you better 'by design' than willy-nilly no rhyme or reason. The same is true of love. You CAN point to better forms of it AND because it conforms to preset standards of God. Your 'choosing otherwise' sentiment is perhaps said for a nice sentimental reason, but reason itself is the better and more appropriate and accurate descriptor, and love explained well and given with guidelines and directives is the appropriate and better expression of love. It may 'seem' cold and calculated, but I disagree serendipity is the preference OR better definition of love. Moreover, it is why, you don't get an unthinking tie every father's day.



I said:
You replied:
I think you just called the future "God". Would you like to rephrase? I've made that assertion a few times here, that God is subservient to the future in the settled future view, but this is the first time anyone has said it from that viewpoint.
Nope. You can't win an argument upon a technicality. You can ask for clarification 'if' you don't get it, but is this really true? Did you not get that I was saying. God is not subservient to the future, rather it, is subservient to God as necessary. There is nothing outside of God BUT God is infinite. Thus it is more often a 'both/and' consideration. Open Theists often make it an either/or without understanding this is not that limited (speaking from the Calvinist thought and perspective, and I think with biblical understanding) but rather more inclusive in understanding. God is BOTH relational to AND unrestricted by time (Not sure if that is followed by another's logical understanding whenever I try to explain or simply state it).
Isn't that what we're doing here?
Yes. It is just where we were/are in the discussion as it progresses (might be a lost point here, I have a hard time following some of these stringed thoughts but having read back, I think I'm still following and answering cogently).

Ah, then it's not a work. You sly Arminian, you. Yet we are commanded to do it.
Er, wasn't my 'belief' simply the product of all that Christ did, however? 1 Corinthians 4:7 For whatever amount we appreciate one another, I'm fine with the observations. I don't 'think' this is Arminian, but I'm okay if you think so for the time being (Arminians believe in 'works'). :up: -In Him

So you admit that what you said in your example was caveated by something implied. God can do that, too, can't He? And if you have to caveat your prediction/prophecy, how valid is it?

Now, I said before I didn't think it was a lie, nor did/do I think He was wrong, but it was contingent. The contingency was implied--the caveat. Is God allowed to do that? Can He make a prophecy that doesn't have to come true, based on some contingency? Remember this is the same God that ordained everything that was ever going to happen. What part of it did He not know which case would happen?
Imho, opening up the contingent, which I too believe is implied and thus deduced from the passage (though I think it has to be reasoned from that scripture as necessary conclusion), explains that 'the pot is going to boil over' and "you are going to die. You will not recover..." Isaiah 38:1
We 'can' read from the passage "you are going to die." We need to be careful however when we read "you will not recover" that we don't see it as necessarily a prophetic utterance apart from the information. In otherwords, that we read 'you will die, I mean by that you aren't going to recover from this illness" should be read as news regarding current events/information. There is no preemptive problem with it, that Hezekiah should not have asked God to heal him. At least, from both Isaiah and 2 Kings 20, we are not left to assume that.


And going back to what I said before, if God knows the truth about something about the future and tells you different, even in a contingent fashion, He has still said something that was not the truth, in the one case, at least (the case where the contingency is not fulfilled).
I disagree on this ground: 4a + 5 ≠ 9 I'm convinced, and so are you, that 9 isn't even a part of this equation and cannot EXCEPT that a = 1 AND it is wholly unreasonable to expect that a can ONLY stand for that. The equation itself is NOT in fact, a lie. It is rather 'an equation.' If we simplify God's communication to anything less than an equation, we've simply done the exact same mistake in scripture that we incorrectly demand of an algebraic equation: That it be simplistic without causing further needed contemplation. This we cannot do. It is wrong to expect such a simplistic answer of this scripture as far as I understand communication, as well. Language is NOWHERE near as exacting (most times with the exception of scriptures such as "God is love")!

]Listen, I understand God was getting Hezekiah to change. That's obvious.
:up: That's algebraic in concept, not simple math.


But if Hezekiah changed, AND the future changed, is it ok?
Not exactly. It is kind of like 4a + 5 = The answer can change but not the proposition. Furthermore, the proposition has only one answer (future proposition is always a difficult discussion and proposition, the value for a is known to only one until it is solved, then we all know it (unless we got it wrong).

Is God the equivalent of the future? Is God bound to a particular sequence of events? I think you are saying "yes." I say "no", except where he has determined those particular events ahead of time. And if that's every event, then God told an untruth.
Difficult. When I say "both/and" it is more inclusive than the oft given 'either/or' scenario. This is the case here, necessarily, because 1) God is infinite and 2) ALREADY infinite. If not, the only alternative is 'finite' and scripture definitely is against that. This btw, is why AMR often says the Open Theist is more influenced by Greeks than we are: by their own logic God is 'limited' to the Greek understanding of their finite gods because it/they do not conceive of God as being both/and (or neither) rather than either/or. They 'think' that 'or' is the only solution/alternative and thus fall short of actual theological import in these discussions. They simply "don't get it" more often than not.
Something has to give, if we're ever going to be unified in our theology. Our theology can't be sacrosanct, except where it aligns with the truth, and until we all agree on every aspect of theology, we have to be careful not to put our interpretation above the truth. Which leads to this:

God couldn't have said that if the future was set in stone. there is no "or face the consequences." There is no contingency with a God that knows exactly what choice you will make in every circumstance. Your assumptions are good ones, but they don't fit with the settled future concept. Re-read them and see if you understand why I say that. And if you can't talk through this without explaining it in open-future language, why do you then go back and say the future is not open.
EXCEPT it is God's way of bringing about HIS plans. His interacting accomplishes those purposes. I think you are arguing for significance but John 15:5 IS that significance. Philippians 1:20
Open theism may be wrong. But it is the logical understanding of the story of Hezekiah and numerous other passages in the bible. If we throw out the idea that the bible, God's word, is logical and understandable, what do we have left. "Where else can we go. You have the words of eternal life."
You cannot throw out the idea that it is logical and understandable. Rather, you throw out the idea that YOUR ideas are, as they sit, logical and understood correctly all the time. It is rather, entertaining the thought "I might be wrong about this particular passage." Also, as we are faithful to God, and as I said, seeking 'His' will, we cannot help but be molded and conformed to His logical, understandable, and truthful (logic and truth should agree, but sometimes the one who 'thinks' he is logical, is not) image. In Him :e4e:
 

Lon

Well-known member
It still doesn't answer the dilemma. If God defines the meaning of love and then says He is love and commands for us to be perfect in love just as He is in love, then you cannot have one standard of love for humans and then have a lower standard of love (that most people would recognize as not only unjust but also evil) for God. When it comes to standards, God is supposed to be HIGHER, not lower.
Yes, but as a child, I often thought my parents "weren't" attaining the same 'standard' of love. The problem? I was wrong. Pure and simple. I've come to understand that at times (like I'm the definition of Love :chuckle: ) "I" just don't get it. Its nice you think you are all that and a bag of chips when it comes to truth, justice and love, but please forgive me greatly questioning that veracity, having fallen short and been wrong as many times as I have to date. I had a VERY hard time wrestling with God through the Old Testament concerning what "I" understood of love and justice. Frankly, as good as my intentions were, good intentions were not what defined Love and Just. God had to bring me to some of His understanding of the words. I believe this is one reason among many that we must remain faithful in the scriptures btw: "WE" have a lot of ignorance to continually work on.

No, it is not "immature" to recognize that kidnapping someone and then trying them for the trespass that you forced upon them is unjust. God says that he will deal with those that sin against him, and our same God also says that his ways are equal (JUST) that he wills the wicked to repent and change. Exodus 32:33, Ezekiel 18 & 33.
:nono: You are wrong. It means, your definition of 'just' is immature and in need of remedial work (Lest I get haughty, I'm in the same boat, I just think I'm seeing it where perhaps you are not). There was no 'kidnapping' by God. You'd have to change it to Satan BUT we went, willing party. We are guilty by the act, desire, and offense. Guilt is about trespass, not as much about 'desire' as it is having done it. Both come into play, but it is not at all one or the other and is a great deal more than this.

Ezekiel 18:26-29 KJV
(26) When a righteous man turneth away from his righteousness, and committeth iniquity, and dieth in them; for his iniquity that he hath done shall he die.
(27) Again, when the wicked man turneth away from his wickedness that he hath committed, and doeth that which is lawful and right, he shall save his soul alive.
(28) Because he considereth, and turneth away from all his transgressions that he hath committed, he shall surely live, he shall not die.
(29) Yet saith the house of Israel, The way of the Lord is not equal. O house of Israel, are not my ways equal? are not your ways unequal?

So the entire concept of making man that has no possibility of repentance? That's not God. That's expressly against His revealed character. This isn't "immature American theology" ... this is the law and the prophets.
Yes, but pay attention to God's indictment: THEY didn't understand equality and THEY (like you) are accusing Him of inequity. He simply told them (and you) "No, you are wrong. I'm NOT inequitable." That doesn't mean you or they get it. It is rather a statement of fact whether you get it or not. God is just. The only place I've gotten in my life at this point is to not second-guess Him 'if' it doesn't look like that to me. In a lot of ways, this is part of this Calvinist conversation and needed discussion as well: Many may not get it, like these Israelites didn't get it, but God told them they were wrong: That He was Just despite what they wrongly thought. I'm not God, and Calvinists are not God, I'm just saying sometimes I think that those who are not Calvinists are 'just wrong" about what they think. We Calvinists may and do complicate this by not getting it or being wrong ourselves conversely, so I pray scriptures, like these we just discussed, bring clarity and light where there has previously been darkness, misunderstanding, and/or just plain wrong. In Him -Lon
 

Stripe

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"Theirs" vs. none? We 'have' a will. Is it 'ours?' Let me ask, if we can ONLY exercise after one of two masters (meaning our will is always in bondage to something/someone thus not ever 'ours' alone), can you call that "free?" Tell me, at least, you see my dilemma? Thank you. -Lon
Wills are free. If they're not free, they're not wills.

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Rosenritter

New member
Yes, but as a child, I often thought my parents "weren't" attaining the same 'standard' of love. The problem? I was wrong. Pure and simple. I've come to understand that at times (like I'm the definition of Love :chuckle: ) "I" just don't get it. Its nice you think you are all that and a bag of chips when it comes to truth, justice and love, but please forgive me greatly questioning that veracity, having fallen short and been wrong as many times as I have to date. I had a VERY hard time wrestling with God through the Old Testament concerning what "I" understood of love and justice. Frankly, as good as my intentions were, good intentions were not what defined Love and Just. God had to bring me to some of His understanding of the words. I believe this is one reason among many that we must remain faithful in the scriptures btw: "WE" have a lot of ignorance to continually work on.

:nono: You are wrong. It means, your definition of 'just' is immature and in need of remedial work (Lest I get haughty, I'm in the same boat, I just think I'm seeing it where perhaps you are not). There was no 'kidnapping' by God. You'd have to change it to Satan BUT we went, willing party. We are guilty by the act, desire, and offense. Guilt is about trespass, not as much about 'desire' as it is having done it. Both come into play, but it is not at all one or the other and is a great deal more than this.


Yes, but pay attention to God's indictment: THEY didn't understand equality and THEY (like you) are accusing Him of inequity. He simply told them (and you) "No, you are wrong. I'm NOT inequitable." That doesn't mean you or they get it. It is rather a statement of fact whether you get it or not. God is just. The only place I've gotten in my life at this point is to not second-guess Him 'if' it doesn't look like that to me. In a lot of ways, this is part of this Calvinist conversation and needed discussion as well: Many may not get it, like these Israelites didn't get it, but God told them they were wrong: That He was Just despite what they wrongly thought. I'm not God, and Calvinists are not God, I'm just saying sometimes I think that those who are not Calvinists are 'just wrong" about what they think. We Calvinists may and do complicate this by not getting it or being wrong ourselves conversely, so I pray scriptures, like these we just discussed, bring clarity and light where there has previously been darkness, misunderstanding, and/or just plain wrong. In Him -Lon

Except you are pointing to God's own description of Himself and His justice and saying "you are wrong." Lon, that makes you wrong.

And may I offer a suggestion? If you have problems understanding God's nature of love and justice in the Old Testament... instead of assigning an inferior (contradictory) standard to God that disagrees with his own description of Himself, be willing to consider that the perceived difficulty may be due to other assumptions that you might be wrongly holding as non-negotiable. Perhaps give one of those examples and see how someone else might answer it otherwise?
 

Lon

Well-known member
Except you are pointing to God's own description of Himself and His justice and saying "you are wrong." Lon, that makes you wrong.
:nono: I'm disagreeing with what YOU think it is.

And may I offer a suggestion? If you have problems understanding God's nature of love and justice in the Old Testament... instead of assigning an inferior (contradictory) standard to God that disagrees with his own description of Himself, be willing to consider that the perceived difficulty may be due to other assumptions that you might be wrongly holding as non-negotiable. Perhaps give one of those examples and see how someone else might answer it otherwise?

Examples: "Get behind me Satan!" and "Do not give the dogs what belongs to the children."

After? Destroying infants? Etc. I don't believe your version of justice will adequately address these.
 

Rosenritter

New member
John 15:5 I have to disagree

... how does that passage relate to "If the will is not free it isn't actually will?" It looks like you're reading something else into that passage completely otherwise from the theme and context...
 

Rosenritter

New member
:nono: I'm disagreeing with what YOU think it is.

You were disagreeing with the quote from Ezekiel where God says that he has no pleasure in destroying the wicked, that his ways are equal in that if the wicked shall change to good he shall be judged by the change, and if the good shall change to wicked he shall also be judged by the change.

That is a fair and consistent method of judgment that is easily understood by humanity as being fair and consistent. Most of humanity, at least... it does conflict with the Calvinist predestination concept (why would that passage and many more like it even exist if that were true?)

quote_icon.png
Originally Posted by Rosenritter
And may I offer a suggestion? If you have problems understanding God's nature of love and justice in the Old Testament... instead of assigning an inferior (contradictory) standard to God that disagrees with his own description of Himself, be willing to consider that the perceived difficulty may be due to other assumptions that you might be wrongly holding as non-negotiable. Perhaps give one of those examples and see how someone else might answer it otherwise?

Examples: "Get behind me Satan!" and "Do not give the dogs what belongs to the children."
Those are examples of ... seemingly contradictory examples of God's nature? Why?

After? Destroying infants? Etc. I don't believe your version of justice will adequately address these.
Challenge accepted. Would you explain each of your three points? The nature of this question is identifying what assumption(s) are actually influencing someone else's perspective.

1. "Get behind me Satan"
1.1 did you mean Matthew 16:23 or Luke 4:8 (Which, or both?)
1.2 Also... why might either of these pose difficulty?

2. "Do not give the dogs what belongs to the children" Matthew 15:56, Mark 7:27.
2.1 What is the nature of the proposed difficulty? Is it the instance of the word "dogs" or that Jesus did give the children's bread to the "dogs?"

3. "Destroying infants"
2.1 Where? Genesis 6:17? Exodus 12:29? 2 Samuel 12:18? Is it any of these or others that you are thinking of?
2.2. Is there a reason that you limited your example to infants?
2.3. I cannot think of any instance where an infant was judged. Can you explain why you choose death of an infant as a potential difficulty for the perception of justice?

Please feel free to elaborate on each of your challenges; I cannot (should not) have to guess at your assumptions. Let's see if they melt away or not?
 

Derf

Well-known member
Romans 7:17 :think:
"IF" I'm at all responsible for my will, instead of the Lord Jesus Christ, then I don't believe I am or can be saved 2 Corinthians 5:17 1 Corinthians 6:19,20 Christ's work has stepped in and eradicated the consequences of my will and has redeemed all ensuing consequences of 'my will' making it null and void and Hiswill of the only consequence. I'm not exactly swallowed up in Christ's identity, there is still a Lon in existence. Saying that, however, the only thing I really know of the Apostle Paul is what He did in Christ and for Christ. I know nothing else of 'his' will but rather "HIS" will regarding the Apostle.
That applies well to you who are <mostly> submissive to His will. But how does that apply to those that aren't. Is it the case that God's will is that people fight against His will? Isn't that exactly what free-will proponents are getting at--that God has for a time decided not to enforce His preferred (preceptive) will, in order that He will make something good come out of letting humans have their way. I think that the purpose is that the two wills (God's and man's) will be joined, and the only way that is a win for man or God is if man submits to God, which is a willful act. Man has a choice whether to do so or not. Eventually, God will sovereignly act against those that refuse to submit, so that he can be joined with those who are left.

It's just a tautology to say that God has a permissive will that matches everything that happens--of course that's true, but it is of little value, imo. I'm not so sure about a decretal will, established from before the foundation of the world, that matches everything that happens.

:nono: The gospel is simple but NOT simplistic. I have to entirely disagree here. It cost the Lord Jesus Christ His life. That wasn't/isn't "easy to explain" imho. Simple love? Yes but not simplistic. I disagree.
My use of "simplistic" wasn't the best, nor the most pure of the meanings. Sorry for the confusion. But the dictionary I saw offered "simple" as a definition for "simplistic".

My inclination is to skip this, but my will is of little consequence. God will have His way and you and I will but follow it to the end and hopefully learn having gone through such discussion. I'm a little and insignificant person on my own John 15:5
Agree. Rather, it all depends upon the Cross, no?
Are you insignificant if God loves you? If God's son died for you? While I agree that compared to God/Jesus we are and always will be insignificant. But His actions (including the one where the Son become an insignificant man) show the significance He has elevated us to in His eyes, and even before that, from the first thought of "Let us make man in our image."

:nono: You just said it: 'not much I can do...' In the world God is the Mover and Shaker, you and I but for a few Billy Graham's here, and a Ravi Zacharias there, aren't seen. "Our" will is all for not in such a grand scheme (and rightly so). RATHER it is 'if' we espoused His will that anything at all matters. Honestly, that is my desire in life, to know Him and make HIM known. I'm of no consequence other than having the blessing of being His. NOBODY NEEDS Lon. They NEED Jesus. Lon's will ONLY counts when it is following the will of the Lord Jesus Christ.
"Counts"? What does that mean? If hell was created for the devil and his angels, surely the devil's will "counts" even if it is completely antithetical to God's.

Which isn't far from my understanding. We aren't free in this respect in agreement. It really is His will or not-His-will. Only His will counts for anything, not just 'counts' but amounts to anything. All else is to be wiped out. Us? Wood hay and stubble BUT for what He has rendered in us. 1 Corinthians 3:12-15
The fact that wood hay and stubble exist to be burned tells us that there is something besides God's will being done, just as the Lord's prayer tells us: "Your will be done on earth as it is in heaven."


Not quite: His permissive will is done, not that it is thwarted, thus 'conflict' isn't the right question. It is neither in conflict nor exactly the same. I'm not God so going even this far is a bit too far in speculation. I'm simply not God, and simply understand where 'my' prowess ends, His hasn't even been touched yet (as I've been trying to convey here in thread to Rosen as well). An illustration: I've gone further in mathematics than a few, BUT I've not gone into quantum mechanics or even higher physics. I'm aware thus, that I'm above my 'basic math' peers and below my higher math peers. I can carry a conversation only so far AND mathematicians are only able to describe consequently, how far they themselves have gone in math. There are levels to the 'apprehension' of truth. Mathematic truths do not change, apprehension of them is limited to every finite man's "ability" to grasp.

Conversely, I truly believe the things of God are truths that are varied in apprehension and ability to comprehend. Here, I believe a simple conflict between God's decretive and prescriptive will is insufficient assessment. Rather, God's prescriptive will is remedial: It is all aimed at bringing back those redeemed to a true state of redemption. Thus one will of God is given to us irrevocable and the other is given to a developing people as they need for God's overall plan. It isn't thus in conflict, but rather in stage "there to here and not yet the final desire."
I think I wrote my comment poorly, and you rightly corrected it in your reply. "Decretal will" and "permissive will" are synonymous, at least in referring to what actually happens. I was attempting to point out that decretal and preceptive are in conflict. But I don't think there is great disagreement that God allows some things here and now that won't ever be allowed again. And it is for some purpose that He allows things now that won't be later. That's probably where the "permissive" idea came from, and though used synonymously, the two ideas--decreed vs permitted--only translate to glory for God if he didn't plan everything that happens before the earth began. Surely He is to be glorified for planning the answer/solution to sin, but hardly for planning the sin itself.





Here Enyart makes a rookie mistake and says that the Omni's are philosophical rather than Biblical. Such IS an admission that not only are they 'less important' but deemed 'unbiblical.' :doh: At one time I confronted that notion with 'almighty' being a biblical given but not redaction has ever been presented. Open Theists do not believe the biblical Omni's, are biblical. It is very important to recognize where you agree or depart with them upon this important point of doctrinal issue regarding the very character of God. It is essential that biblical definitions be adhered to. Heresy, according to Protestants, is a 'departure from the clear teaching of scriptures.' A departure from "God almighty" for instance, is a departure from being anything Christian/biblical.
I could be wrong, but it didn't seem like "omnipotence" was the main target. And in another of his missives (sorry I couldn't find it again for a reference) he specifically said impassibility was impossible for someone who has taken on a human nature for the rest of eternity.

It is actually a comparison/illustration that undoes your argument: Your house warms you better 'by design' than willy-nilly no rhyme or reason. The same is true of love. You CAN point to better forms of it AND because it conforms to preset standards of God. Your 'choosing otherwise' sentiment is perhaps said for a nice sentimental reason, but reason itself is the better and more appropriate and accurate descriptor, and love explained well and given with guidelines and directives is the appropriate and better expression of love. It may 'seem' cold and calculated, but I disagree serendipity is the preference OR better definition of love. Moreover, it is why, you don't get an unthinking tie every father's day.
Who is talking about willy-nilly love? I'm saying your definition of love is rather unimpressive, and my house fits the bill. Surely love is more than that. But that was Bob's point, if I understood it correctly--that love as an attribute of God is more accurate than impassibility, and more biblical. And more what God has actually said about Himself, which is part of what started this conversation (didactic vs narrative scripture).


Nope. You can't win an argument upon a technicality. You can ask for clarification 'if' you don't get it, but is this really true? Did you not get that I was saying. God is not subservient to the future, rather it, is subservient to God as necessary. There is nothing outside of God BUT God is infinite. Thus it is more often a 'both/and' consideration. Open Theists often make it an either/or without understanding this is not that limited (speaking from the Calvinist thought and perspective, and I think with biblical understanding) but rather more inclusive in understanding. God is BOTH relational to AND unrestricted by time (Not sure if that is followed by another's logical understanding whenever I try to explain or simply state it).
Yes. It is just where we were/are in the discussion as it progresses (might be a lost point here, I have a hard time following some of these stringed thoughts but having read back, I think I'm still following and answering cogently).
Is not "Would you like to rephrase?" asking for clarification?

But what does "unrestricted by time" mean? Is it the same as "impassible"? "Unrestricted" seems like it would allow for God to be eternal without being "impassible". But "relational" and "impassible" are not very compatible with each other.


Er, wasn't my 'belief' simply the product of all that Christ did, however? 1 Corinthians 4:7 For whatever amount we appreciate one another, I'm fine with the observations. I don't 'think' this is Arminian, but I'm okay if you think so for the time being (Arminians believe in 'works'). :up: -In Him
I don't see how "belief" is the product of all He did, unless all people are believing now.


Imho, opening up the contingent, which I too believe is implied and thus deduced from the passage (though I think it has to be reasoned from that scripture as necessary conclusion), explains that 'the pot is going to boil over' and "you are going to die. You will not recover..." Isaiah 38:1
We 'can' read from the passage "you are going to die." We need to be careful however when we read "you will not recover" that we don't see it as necessarily a prophetic utterance apart from the information. In otherwords, that we read 'you will die, I mean by that you aren't going to recover from this illness" should be read as news regarding current events/information. There is no preemptive problem with it, that Hezekiah should not have asked God to heal him. At least, from both Isaiah and 2 Kings 20, we are not left to assume that.
Except that God wasn't talking about current events/information. He was talking about the future. If God cannot be trusted to speak truth when He talks about the future, what can he be trusted with? Our whole hope for salvation is that we will be resurrected in the future, as we have been told by God. Despair comes from a lack of that hope, because God said "surely you will die". The whole salvation message is that God has changed our future from death to life. He spoke that we would die. He speaks that we will now live. And something major changed in between those two pronouncements.



I disagree on this ground: 4a + 5 ≠ 9 I'm convinced, and so are you, that 9 isn't even a part of this equation and cannot EXCEPT that a = 1 AND it is wholly unreasonable to expect that a can ONLY stand for that. The equation itself is NOT in fact, a lie. It is rather 'an equation.' If we simplify God's communication to anything less than an equation, we've simply done the exact same mistake in scripture that we incorrectly demand of an algebraic equation: That it be simplistic without causing further needed contemplation. This we cannot do. It is wrong to expect such a simplistic answer of this scripture as far as I understand communication, as well. Language is NOWHERE near as exacting (most times with the exception of scriptures such as "God is love")!
I'm having difficulty understanding your point. The thing that bothers my with your comparison is that you are calling a statement of inequality an "equation". It is the very opposite of an equation, because the two sides are not equal. But it is an accurate statement, due to the "≠". You are saying mathematics is precise, while language isn't as much. But mathematics is transmitted through the language of mathematics, and if we call an inequality an equation, we are creating confusion.

This is my complaint with Calvinism--they look at the words of the bible and say, "those words don't mean what they say, they mean the opposite. This is detrimental to our understanding of truth. If we say, "a lie is when you purposefully tell someone something false", and "a lie is morally wrong", and then we say, "God purposefully told Hezekiah something that was false", and "it was not a lie nor was it morally wrong." We either must admit we aren't speaking in the same language, or we must admit we are introducing confusion.

If we say that everything God told Hezekiah was true, then there is no choice but to admit that Hezekiah's future changed in between the two statements. I don't know that I can put that in equation form, but I can try.
Hez + a' days = death, (where a' days << 15 years)
Hez + 15 years = death

You can see that in a mathematical world, where math is constant and precise, a' days would have to equal 15 years, which is a contradiction with "a' days << 15 years". In math, that means something is wrong with the premises, just as it does in logic. We're not talking about a mathematical world, but a world where things happen and people and God interact--where there are many variables. I'm suggesting, of course, that the language is just as precise as it needs to be, and the language is the means by which God and we communicate ideas. God communicated an idea to Hezekiah that is clear--Hezekiah, at least, was very aware of its meaning. His death was only a few heartbeats away, until he prayed and God heard his prayers and varied Hezekiah's future.



Not exactly. It is kind of like 4a + 5 = The answer can change but not the proposition. Furthermore, the proposition has only one answer (future proposition is always a difficult discussion and proposition, the value for a is known to only one until it is solved, then we all know it (unless we got it wrong).
But again, you have not given an equation. You given a partial proposition this time. There's not even enough information to solve for a. You ASSUME that the giver of the partial statement has a value in mind for the right side, but that is totally an assumption. The information just isn't there to make a full statement. And because it isn't a full statement/proposition, there is no truth value. That is NOT the case for God's pronouncements on Hezekiah. They were testable propositions.

But I've likely missed your point, so may I ask what you would equate the variable "a" to in your statements? Is that the time Hezekiah will live, known only to God? Some factor that needs to be included in determining how long Hezekiah will live? Whatever the case, God gave Hezekiah the end result, and then allowed it to change (changed it Himself).



EXCEPT it is God's way of bringing about HIS plans. His interacting accomplishes those purposes. I think you are arguing for significance but John 15:5 IS that significance. Philippians 1:20
God's way is to say something that isn't true as if it is true? Really? I hadn't noticed that about God's way ever before.

And Hezekiah helps to explain some of the meaning of John 15:5. Hezekiah would not exist without God, that is true. But Hezekiah couldn't displease God at God's pleasure. If all Hezekiah did was at God's pleasure, ala Is 46:10, then displeasure is part of God's pleasure. Which means, I'm sure you see, that God is the author of sin in your reading of John 15:5.

You cannot throw out the idea that it is logical and understandable. Rather, you throw out the idea that YOUR ideas are, as they sit, logical and understood correctly all the time. It is rather, entertaining the thought "I might be wrong about this particular passage." Also, as we are faithful to God, and as I said, seeking 'His' will, we cannot help but be molded and conformed to His logical, understandable, and truthful (logic and truth should agree, but sometimes the one who 'thinks' he is logical, is not) image. In Him :e4e:
Except that it isn't my ideas that we are talking about. We are talking about a conversation between two people in the distant past. We think we have a correctly translated version of their conversation. In the conversation, there is no mincing of words, but God is very direct in His pronouncements, which are easy to understand. And they are contradictory.

I appreciate your use of mathematics, especially the addition of a variable that affects the outcome. This is all I've been saying with the Hezekiah story--there was a variable that applied to the length of his life. And if there really is a variability of the length of anyone's life, then at least in this one thing, God had NOT ordained the outcome from the foundation of the earth.

So, I'm agreeing with you here, but are you in agreement with yourself?

Lon, you have been more than patient through this exchange. I hope we can continue, but if we don't have more exchange between now and Thursday, have a happy and thankful Thanksgiving.
Derf
 

Lon

Well-known member
... how does that passage relate to "If the will is not free it isn't actually will?" It looks like you're reading something else into that passage completely otherwise from the theme and context...

That verse doesn't say wills can be not free.

"Without Me you (Steko and Rosenritter I'm assuming among them) can do n-o-t-h-I-n-g"

You can argue it if/as you like, but to me, it looks like you've a very very long way to go to prove your opposition.
Perhaps start here: Colossians 1:17, John 15:5 (Literally "cannot do even one thing") Are they true? :think
 

Lon

Well-known member
Joh 15:5 Whoever abides in me and I in him

abiding is a choice, or did I miss your point ?

Think through it with me: The very next part of the verse says 'nothing.' Therefore whatever exists of any kind of unabiding will literally makes and accounts as nothing, dirt, squat. Correct? Why is a 'will-to-do-otherwise' the pinnacle of some Christians' experience and explanation of things? How in the world can "I" be the pinnacle of a need for Christ or a need to take up my cross and follow Him? Can you explain that? Can you explain how that would or could appeal to one trying to be Christ's? I'm simply not grasping what seems self-centered theology. How is it not? Further, can it be considered 'Christian' at that point? How is me-centered theology Christian? Explain some of this to me if possible please. A few of you are on-about this kind of 'self-will-interested' theology and I'm just not getting it. I'm not even aware of many verses that'd 'could' support such. Please help me understand this and thank you. -Lon
 

Lon

Well-known member
You were disagreeing with the quote from Ezekiel where God says that he has no pleasure in destroying the wicked, that his ways are equal in that if the wicked shall change to good he shall be judged by the change, and if the good shall change to wicked he shall also be judged by the change.
How does this apply to infants, wiped out? My answer: Because God owns infants, not you, not I, not even their parents. He is just because He IS God. My answer, I believe, supercedes yours where 'situational ethics' that must necessarily apply to you, are falsely applied to God as if He is answerable to man. This I very much disagree with.

That is a fair and consistent method of judgment that is easily understood by humanity as being fair and consistent. Most of humanity, at least... it does conflict with the Calvinist predestination concept (why would that passage and many more like it even exist if that were true?)
Not Calvinistic by any necessity: Scriptural Romans 9:20 Isaiah 45:9 1 Corinthians 10:22 Job 9:12 Proverbs 21:30
None of these are 'Calvinistic' nor the interpretation of them.



Those are examples of ... seemingly contradictory examples of God's nature? Why?
:nono: They are contradictions of your what-I-believe-are-contrived standards. God does not have to measure up to your standards. You have to measure up to His and will NEVER be able, despite even your present 'righteous indignation' (again, I believe you aren't nor am I) sense of justice, be able to take His righteous measure. He is not 'relationally' righteous. He is righteous before and despite being associated with unrighteous men. You've a bit of Calvinist angst here, a bit of personal angst it seems with me, but I'm not placing myself in opposition. I'm saying that you are 'down here' with me regarding righteousness and righteous apprehension. I'm saying I think you are a bit deluded as far as I can see and ascertain.


Challenge accepted.
That's the problem. I'm saying, flat-out and plainly, you can't. It is an arrogance imho. I'm not God's judge AND I believe I've been in your shoes at one time. You and Job had this in common, I believe. Job eventually learned something. I believe Job learned "Because I said so" was a better answer than presumption.

Would you explain each of your three points? The nature of this question is identifying what assumption(s) are actually influencing someone else's perspective.

1. "Get behind me Satan"
1.1 did you mean Matthew 16:23 or Luke 4:8 (Which, or both?)
Matthew 16:23. I use this, because there are several on TOL who have presumptuous theology. The Lord's response to Peter's poor theology was a rather harsh rebuke. Why was a rather harsh response given? Could the Lord Jesus Christ have done this less severely?
It is my estimation that He could not have. He said what was necessary BUT you and I would not necessarily be right or just if we followed example. IOW, what is good and just for the goose is not good and just for the gander. My purpose is to prove that what is 'right' for us, may not always be for God because, specifically, I'm disagreeing with you that God is held to the same standards we are. It is a 'sin' for us to take any of God's rights as our own. He has rights over all creation. We simply do not.


2. "Do not give the dogs what belongs to the children" Matthew 15:56, Mark 7:27.
2.1 What is the nature of the proposed difficulty? Is it the instance of the word "dogs" or that Jesus did give the children's bread to the "dogs?"
If you called someone a 'dog' in this insulting way, could you possibly do so without sinning? Jesus could and did. Again, there is a difference between what He did and said, and what is 'right' for you to do and say. My point again is that you CANNOT hold God to your sense of right and wrong. Further? I don't believe we as human beings ever get it right. We get close, but ONLY God is righteous. ONLY God is good. That leaves you (and me) with a bit of 'bad' and poor judgment and a naïve sense of right and wrong.
3. "Destroying infants"
2.1 Where? Genesis 6:17? Exodus 12:29? 2 Samuel 12:18? Is it any of these or others that you are thinking of?
2.2. Is there a reason that you limited your example to infants?
2.3. I cannot think of any instance where an infant was judged. Can you explain why you choose death of an infant as a potential difficulty for the perception of justice?
They were destroyed. Can you ever call for the destruction of infants without it being terrible? Would it ever be 'righteous?'
 

Lon

Well-known member
That applies well to you who are <mostly> submissive to His will. But how does that apply to those that aren't. Is it the case that God's will is that people fight against His will? Isn't that exactly what free-will proponents are getting at--that God has for a time decided not to enforce His preferred (preceptive) will, in order that He will make something good come out of letting humans have their way. I think that the purpose is that the two wills (God's and man's) will be joined, and the only way that is a win for man or God is if man submits to God, which is a willful act. Man has a choice whether to do so or not. Eventually, God will sovereignly act against those that refuse to submit, so that he can be joined with those who are left.
Yes, but take it to its logical conclusion: He will reconcile all things to Himself and we will be "just like Him" 1 John 3:2.

A 'free' will isn't part of good theology discussion in light of such and such affections of our goals. Agreed?

It's just a tautology to say that God has a permissive will that matches everything that happens--of course that's true, but it is of little value, imo. I'm not so sure about a decretal will, established from before the foundation of the world, that matches everything that happens.
Somewhat. The 'tautology' is about the difference as well as what we, His people want ourselves. We say, at least, that we want what He wants and that we desire to be like Him. Doesn't that make 'free' will discussion a tautology as well? Imho, a prescriptive will is incredibly less of a tautological consideration in such light and my Christian (Christ-seeking) affections, interests, and calling. "Nothing now remains, only what you do for Me..." (for any Keith Green fans). I'm trying to ascertain in my theology, which is the greater tautological problem. It seems to me, at present, that 'freewill' is the greater of these two. :think:

My use of "simplistic" wasn't the best, nor the most pure of the meanings. Sorry for the confusion. But the dictionary I saw offered "simple" as a definition for "simplistic".

Are you insignificant if God loves you? If God's son died for you? While I agree that compared to God/Jesus we are and always will be insignificant. But His actions (including the one where the Son become an insignificant man) show the significance He has elevated us to in His eyes, and even before that, from the first thought of "Let us make man in our image."
It is still the goal of us, to be subsumed in Him 1 John 3:2 Not only that, I'm absolutely 100% convinced that John 15:5 means 'nothing.' It means that as much as we are loved and valued, it is that which is AND MUST BE God's that is loved in us. It is a 'subsumed' consideration. I'm worth nothing BUT for Christ. 1 Corinthians 3:11-16ff

"Counts"? What does that mean? If hell was created for the devil anad his angels, surely the devil's will "counts" even if it is completely antithetical to God's.
back to 1 Corinthians 3:11-16 'counts' means 'what doesn't burn up as worthless.'

The fact that wood hay and stubble exist to be burned tells us that there is something besides God's will being done, just as the Lord's prayer tells us: "Your will be done on earth as it is in heaven."
Yes, but only that which is NOT burned remains and exists after that.

I think I wrote my comment poorly, and you rightly corrected it in your reply. "Decretal will" and "permissive will" are synonymous, at least in referring to what actually happens. I was attempting to point out that decretal and preceptive are in conflict. But I don't think there is great disagreement that God allows some things here and now that won't ever be allowed again. And it is for some purpose that He allows things now that won't be later. That's probably where the "permissive" idea came from, and though used synonymously, the two ideas--decreed vs permitted--only translate to glory for God if he didn't plan everything that happens before the earth began. Surely He is to be glorified for planning the answer/solution to sin, but hardly for planning the sin itself.
To me, after long thought, the ONLY thing that matters, even to you, here, about/concerning me, is what is God's. The rest? Forgettable. Only what reflection I have of Christ, and you to me, is of any worth and value. At least, that is what I'm reading from 1 Corinthians 3:11-16 and understanding.

I could be wrong, but it didn't seem like "omnipotence" was the main target. And in another of his missives (sorry I couldn't find it again for a reference) he specifically said impassibility was impossible for someone who has taken on a human nature for the rest of eternity.
This is a difficult concept, but for One who IS infinite, the idea of 'change' is already within 'infinite' though infinite has no bounds. For the most part, I chalk, all of these confusions to better and worse tentative grasps of finite people with minds that 'can' only reach finite ends to understanding and grasping the infinite. As such, impassible is about 'nature' rather than becoming flesh. Such is a finite concept already. "Change" debate, in my mind, is always more or less about the difference between coming at it with either a finite or infinite perspective. That is, the tension seems always to me, to be the difference between how God relates to man, verses Him being transcendent over man. Of course He is transcendent or we'd not have a God, just a glorified man, but this is part of that conversation because it is specifically about God 'becoming' a man. For me? My mind is too finite for such things but I at least try to show how large the finite conversation is.

Who is talking about willy-nilly love? I'm saying your definition of love is rather unimpressive, and my house fits the bill. Surely love is more than that. But that was Bob's point, if I understood it correctly--that love as an attribute of God is more accurate than impassibility, and more biblical. And more what God has actually said about Himself, which is part of what started this conversation (didactic vs narrative scripture).
To me, it necessarily has to be larger than your and my house put together. It has to be infinite and eternal, thus we only have this tiny grasp (as big as our tiny brains have capacity to grasp). But as far as I do understand love, love that is consistent (immutable) is the better 'because' it isn't ruined by interaction. What I mean is, if I have a pre-planned course of perfect action as a parent, it is wholly to be preferred than my just winging it. I'm saying that the "steadfast love of the Lord never ceases." We can count on it because it is, in fact, God. He is the definition of Love. You and I 'discover' love thus find it 'greater' in expression, but God is already vast in it. Paul prayed we'd grasp the 'height, depth, and width' of God's love then explains 'which is without (there is no height, depth, or width constraint) measure" in Ephesians. Thus, for me, a love that isn't full and already accessible is 'less-than' by potential. There are those who argue unless I 'choose' love, it isn't real love. I disagree with that. Real love was defined way before I ever got to be a parent and RATHER I discover it and then express it. The better I am at expressing those already-set-in-place prerequisites, the better I actually love. I also argue that Adam and Eve loved before the Fall and DIDN'T adequately afterwards. The presence of 'free' will actually destroyed the purity and proper expression of love.

Is not "Would you like to rephrase?" asking for clarification?

But what does "unrestricted by time" mean? Is it the same as "impassible"? "Unrestricted" seems like it would allow for God to be eternal without being "impassible". But "relational" and "impassible" are not very compatible with each other.
To me? The finite trying (necessarily without much success by virtue of what it is trying to grasp .(Ecclesiastes 3:11)


I don't see how "belief" is the product of all He did, unless all people are believing now.
I think this is not seeing my meaning. I'm saying without Christ 'having done something and been something' then there is no 'object' for there to be belief. Now certainly those who do not believe have their own fodder, but I'm saying that Christ did everything to 'cause' our belief. He is the object of it. There is no belief without Christ. He gave it to us. That is why I say belief is the 'product' of all He did.


Except that God wasn't talking about current events/information. He was talking about the future. If God cannot be trusted to speak truth when He talks about the future, what can he be trusted with? Our whole hope for salvation is that we will be resurrected in the future, as we have been told by God. Despair comes from a lack of that hope, because God said "surely you will die". The whole salvation message is that God has changed our future from death to life. He spoke that we would die. He speaks that we will now live. And something major changed in between those two pronouncements.
No, that's not true. Rather it is 'what you took away from this conversation' that makes something true or false. Conversation is not over until God is done talking. This is a hard concept, but If I say 'Red really isn't a color' you could call me a liar. The problem is communication hasn't happened to prove otherwise, but 'red' is the reflection of light where other light is absorbed. In a way, you'd be right to correct me, but at the same time, it'd be wrong to call me a liar. The more important part of our communication is whether we understand one another in such a conversation AND what we have to do to figure out something further. In Hezekiah's case, imho, it is wrong to see 'lie' as the only option when we are trying to understand something of a greater perspective. God did not communicate a mistruth. It is, as far as my mind grasps, no different than saying 'the pot is going to boil over.' I knew, even without knowing the future, that the pot wasn't going to boil over. Moreover? You'd have no mind whatsoever to call me a liar over the fact NOR to say I miscommunicated. You get what I was saying EVEN THOUGH you too knew the pot wasn't going to boil over. Someone very pedantic might accuse me of lying. They will be 'right' in their own mind and neither you nor I can convince them otherwise. I was NOT lying in my conveyance. At least you and I know that I wasn't being a liar :(


I'm having difficulty understanding your point. The thing that bothers my with your comparison is that you are calling a statement of inequality an "equation". It is the very opposite of an equation, because the two sides are not equal. But it is an accurate statement, due to the "≠". You are saying mathematics is precise, while language isn't as much. But mathematics is transmitted through the language of mathematics, and if we call an inequality an equation, we are creating confusion.
The point being that you might read "you are going to die" as prophetic, whereas I read it as 'this follows this.' In other words, it wasn't 'you are going to die, and I'm going to make sure you've no way out of this' or "I'm making this happen and will not change my mind" but "You aren't going to recover from this illness at this point, you are going to die from it." Just like if I said, "the pot is going to boil over" I'm not, in fact, a liar if the pot doesn't boil over because that was NOT my intended message. I read it as a forecast.

This is my complaint with Calvinism--they look at the words of the bible and say, "those words don't mean what they say, they mean the opposite. This is detrimental to our understanding of truth. If we say, "a lie is when you purposefully tell someone something false", and "a lie is morally wrong", and then we say, "God purposefully told Hezekiah something that was false", and "it was not a lie nor was it morally wrong." We either must admit we aren't speaking in the same language, or we must admit we are introducing confusion.
Just like above, it is rather wrestling and saying "Am I CERTAIN I am reading this with the correct understanding the first time?"

That cannot be a bad thing, nor can it be but a service to nonCalvinists alike. 2 Timothy 2:15 I'm not saying we need to entertain every corrupt theology out there, but I do think Calvinist/Arminian and other, are within God-pleasing conversations. At least this is my estimation.

If we say that everything God told Hezekiah was true, then there is no choice but to admit that Hezekiah's future changed in between the two statements. I don't know that I can put that in equation form, but I can try.
Hez + a' days = death, (where a' days << 15 years)
Hez + 15 years = death
Then, if you are correct, there is no option BUT that I lied to my wife when I said "the pot is going to boil over." :( (I'm sorry, but I have to disagree this is the only option, because I 'could' even accuse the Open Theist of the same manufactured lie). To me, it is just poor inductive bible study method. I just think those who come up with this need to contemplate the scriptures longer and come up with the 'right' answer because it doesn't matter if one is Calvinist or Open Theist, or etc. It is simply wrong, from ANY angle, to see this as a lie, imho.

You can see that in a mathematical world, where math is constant and precise, a' days would have to equal 15 years, which is a contradiction with "a' days << 15 years". In math, that means something is wrong with the premises, just as it does in logic. We're not talking about a mathematical world, but a world where things happen and people and God interact--where there are many variables. I'm suggesting, of course, that the language is just as precise as it needs to be, and the language is the means by which God and we communicate ideas. God communicated an idea to Hezekiah that is clear--Hezekiah, at least, was very aware of its meaning. His death was only a few heartbeats away, until he prayed and God heard his prayers and varied Hezekiah's future.
But this is my accusation: I often think these 'simple' scripture applications are wrong. They/these don't seem to apprehend algebraic expressions and seem to miss them in their theology contemplations. God DID tell Hezekiah He was going to die. Hezekiah DIDN'T die. It doesn't matter how you got there, you aren't better off than a Calvinist for getting there. To me, the best solution is that this was not a black and white. It wouldn't matter if the Open Theist were correct, that God "didn't" know, it still amounts, with that equation, to nothing but God lying. Ignorance is not an excuse nor a good debating position. "...then God lied..." is but (for me) a wrong-headed accusation that is putting theology and bible study together incorrectly. NOBODY believes 'the pot is going to boil over' is a lie BUT the simple child. They need 1) to grow and 2) better instruction. That's the correct answer. Until they get to that point of ability, they will suffer their own ignorance. For you and I, the challenge is to put correct thoughts together and discard what doesn't fit. "God lied" doesn't fit and we both know it. We just have to do our best to explain why. To the best of my knowledge, "the pot is going to boil over" is the best answer to the dilemma.



But again, you have not given an equation. You given a partial proposition this time. There's not even enough information to solve for a. You ASSUME that the giver of the partial statement has a value in mind for the right side, but that is totally an assumption. The information just isn't there to make a full statement. And because it isn't a full statement/proposition, there is no truth value. That is NOT the case for God's pronouncements on Hezekiah. They were testable propositions.
I may not have described it as adequately as I hope I have now been....

But I've likely missed your point, so may I ask what you would equate the variable "a" to in your statements? Is that the time Hezekiah will live, known only to God? Some factor that needs to be included in determining how long Hezekiah will live? Whatever the case, God gave Hezekiah the end result, and then allowed it to change (changed it Himself).
"Hezekiah (whatever value), you have "x" illness and will die (the equal). The problem is ONLY true given these scenarios. As soon as any one of them changes, the equation does as well. All God gave, imho, is the equation of death. There is therefore no lie (neither necessary in either the Open Theist or Calvinist position). The 'equation' He gave is true. What changed? The outcome? :nono: RATHER the outcome of a 'different' equation: "Hezekiah prays (new equation), sickness(removed component) is no longer part of this new equation, therefore there is no lie, even though Hezekiah is indeed part of both.


QUOTE]God's way is to say something that isn't true as if it is true? Really? I hadn't noticed that about God's way ever before.
Again, scenario one with equation was TOTALLY true. Just because ANOTHER equation with a different solution is given, does not negate or cause the previous to be untrue. It was/is STILL true that with that disease, Hezekiah WOULD have died and wouldn't have recovered.

And Hezekiah helps to explain some of the meaning of John 15:5. Hezekiah would not exist without God, that is true. But Hezekiah couldn't displease God at God's pleasure. If all Hezekiah did was at God's pleasure, ala Is 46:10, then displeasure is part of God's pleasure. Which means, I'm sure you see, that God is the author of sin in your reading of John 15:5.
It applies to ALL theologies, not just the Calvinist perspective. Hopefully, as you've had these conversations, you've come to realize no theology perspective ever avoids these accusations. They rather tend to be questions 'put-off' rather than adequately or sufficiently answered by the other theology camp. Case in point:

Except that it isn't my ideas that we are talking about. We are talking about a conversation between two people in the distant past. We think we have a correctly translated version of their conversation. In the conversation, there is no mincing of words, but God is very direct in His pronouncements, which are easy to understand. And they are contradictory.
In EITHER camp. NO theology perspective escapes. Simply saying "God didn't know" rather says "God lied out of ignorance" instead of exhaustive foreknowledge. To me? No help. You might as well avoid Open Theism if all it does for you is makes God 'inept' as well as a liar. See what I mean? It is RATHER important to wrestle with the text together as iron sharpens iron, imho. It helps BOTH Calvinists and Open Theists to discuss the exact same problem/accusation that is NOT avoided by the other, despite the attempt.
I appreciate your use of mathematics, especially the addition of a variable that affects the outcome. This is all I've been saying with the Hezekiah story--there was a variable that applied to the length of his life. And if there really is a variability of the length of anyone's life, then at least in this one thing, God had NOT ordained the outcome from the foundation of the earth.
Yeah, but that doesn't give me any hope or confidence. I've been wrong enough and messed stuff up enough in the past to have absolutely no comfort from the Open Theist proposition. There is no "I'm glad God didn't make me do that!" I'd rather God stepped in and did it right as only He can. Rather, Romans 8:58 is a promise that even if I'm allowed to mess it up, God will make it right. That puts me right back into comfort and trust that God has a plan. A pre-plan and that I'm all caught up in it. The other? It seems an attempt to make man all-important in God's plans and I'm okay with it to the point of agreement that God loves us. At the same time, I don't want to get too caught up in myself. God is who counts. Our faith is self-abnegating.

So, I'm agreeing with you here, but are you in agreement with yourself?

Lon, you have been more than patient through this exchange. I hope we can continue
Thank you too. I've prayed a bit and rewrote a few of these. I've appreciated your love for Christ and deference to me too. In Him -Lon

but if we don't have more exchange between now and Thursday, have a happy and thankful Thanksgiving.
Derf
Hope yours was terrific!


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Rosenritter

New member
"Without Me you (Steko and Rosenritter I'm assuming among them) can do n-o-t-h-I-n-g"

You can argue it if/as you like, but to me, it looks like you've a very very long way to go to prove your opposition.
Perhaps start here: Colossians 1:17, John 15:5 (Literally "cannot do even one thing") Are they true? :think

If you persist in applying an absurdly strict literal interpretation then God is the author of ALL evil, for no EVIL could be done without God doing it.
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
"Without Me you (Steko and Rosenritter I'm assuming among them) can do n-o-t-h-I-n-g"

You can argue it if/as you like, but to me, it looks like you've a very very long way to go to prove your opposition.
Perhaps start here: Colossians 1:17, John 15:5 (Literally "cannot do even one thing") Are they true? :think

Hey, what's Steko got to do with it?
 

Rosenritter

New member
How does this apply to infants, wiped out? My answer: Because God owns infants, not you, not I, not even their parents. He is just because He IS God. My answer, I believe, supercedes yours where 'situational ethics' that must necessarily apply to you, are falsely applied to God as if He is answerable to man. This I very much disagree with.



Matthew 16:23. I use this, because there are several on TOL who have presumptuous theology. The Lord's response to Peter's poor theology was a rather harsh rebuke. Why was a rather harsh response given? Could the Lord Jesus Christ have done this less severely?
It is my estimation that He could not have. He said what was necessary BUT you and I would not necessarily be right or just if we followed example. IOW, what is good and just for the goose is not good and just for the gander. My purpose is to prove that what is 'right' for us, may not always be for God because, specifically, I'm disagreeing with you that God is held to the same standards we are. It is a 'sin' for us to take any of God's rights as our own. He has rights over all creation. We simply do not.

You are suggesting that it is a contradiction of God's nature the rebuke Peter for his own benefit? Love includes discipline. See the proverbs about discipline the child. Hebrews 12:8. Etc. Are you a parent (and could thus relate?)

If you called someone a 'dog' in this insulting way, could you possibly do so without sinning? Jesus could and did. Again, there is a difference between what He did and said, and what is 'right' for you to do and say. My point again is that you CANNOT hold God to your sense of right and wrong. Further? I don't believe we as human beings ever get it right. We get close, but ONLY God is righteous. ONLY God is good. That leaves you (and me) with a bit of 'bad' and poor judgment and a naïve sense of right and wrong.

I think that you are not quite reading between the lines in that account. Jesus wasn't insulting the woman. Besides this, that particular account (recording the meaning of "dog" for those "looked down upon by the Jews") helps define later scripture.

They were destroyed. Can you ever call for the destruction of infants without it being terrible? Would it ever be 'righteous?'

You are forgetting a principle, a very important principle: the dead are at peace until they are raised, and God raises all of the dead. See Isaiah 65:20, Job 3:16-17. See also Isaiah 57:1.

I think that you're not quite addressing the question, or had something slightly different in mind. Rebuking his children (in the case of Peter), prompting the gentile to the reward of faith (even those who were considered "dogs" outside of Israel) and placing any number of his children into the peace of death until the resurrection is no conflict that "God is love" or difficult to understand.
 
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