Please explain how this....
“The devil, and the whole train of the ungodly, are in all directions, held in by the hand of God as with a bridle, so that they can neither conceive any mischief, nor plan what they have conceived, nor how muchsoever they may have planned, move a single finger to perpetrate, unless in so far as he permits, nay unless in so far as he commands, that they are not only bound by his fetters but are even forced to do him service” (John Calvin, Institutes of Christian Religion, Book 1, Chapter 17, Paragraph 11)
and this...
“Therefore, those whom God passes over, he condemns; and this he does for no other reason than that he wills to exclude them from the inheritance which he predestines for his own children.” (John Calvin, Institutes of Christia/n Religion, Book 3, Chapter 23, Paragraph 1)
are logically compatible with the administering of deserved punishment or reward (i.e. with justice).
Resting in Him,
Clete
P.S. If Nang answers this question at all, she will be forced to render the term 'justice' to be synonymous with 'arbitrary', effectively rendering the term meaningless. Justice to her is whatever she claims that their god has done. There is, therefore, no appeal to justice that could ever be made that would move a Calvinist an inch. If their god ordered the rape and murder of all five-year-old children, they'd say that their god has the right - the RIGHT - to do so and that we would be evil for refusing his order. It is, therefore, completely meaningless for them to say that their god is just. He isn't just, he just is. "Just" does not describe their god, their god defines justice. Their god, therefore, does not do what he does because it is righteous but whatever he does is righteous because he did it - no matter what it is. Thus, the question that this thread poses is a meaningless, unanswerable question in the mind of the Calvinist. So, sit back and watch as Nang explains how justice is synonymous with its opposite.