PneumaPsucheSoma
TOL Subscriber
Simply not true. The author of John did not have the text which has been quoted because the Masoretic Text was not in existence at the time of writing. In fact the Masoretic Hebrew Text was not compiled for about another 900 years after the Gospel of John was written. The author of John quotes from either the Septuagint or some other heretofore unknown manuscript or codex. In John 12:38 we see clear evidence of this fact:
John 12:38 KJV
38. That the saying of Esaias the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spake, Lord, who hath believed our report? and to whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed?
The word for "Lord" highlighted in the above quote, (which would have been either YHWH, or Adonay, or more likely Adon because it is Kurie in the Greek) is not present in the Masoretic Hebrew Text:
Isaiah 53:1 KJV
1. Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the Lord revealed?
However the Greek quote in John 12:38 matches the Septuagint word for word as if it was copied straight from the Septuagint:
John 12:38 W/H 1881
ἵνα ὁ λόγος Ἠσαίου τοῦ προφήτου πληρωθῇ ὃν εἶπεν Κύριε, τίς ἐπίστευσεν τῇ ἀκοῇ ἡμῶν; καὶ ὁ βραχίων Κυρίου τίνι ἀπεκαλύφθη;
http://biblehub.com/text/john/12-38.htm
John 12:38 T/R 1550
ἵνα ὁ λόγος Ἠσαΐου τοῦ προφήτου πληρωθῇ ὃν εἶπεν Κύριε τίς ἐπίστευσεν τῇ ἀκοῇ ἡμῶν καὶ ὁ βραχίων κυρίου τίνι ἀπεκαλύφθη
http://biblehub.com/text/john/12-38.htm
Esaias 53:1 LXX-Septuagint
Κύριε, τίς ἐπίστευσε τῇ ἀκοῇ ἡμῶν; καὶ ὁ βραχίων Κυρίου τίνι ἀπεκαλύφθη;
http://www.ellopos.net/elpenor/greek-texts/septuagint/chapter.asp?book=43&page=53
Esaias 53:1 LXX-Septuagint (Brenton Translation)
1 O Lord, who has believed our report? and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?
http://www.ellopos.net/elpenor/greek-texts/septuagint/chapter.asp?book=43&page=53
And again the quote in John 12:38 is word for word from the Septuagint:
JN 12:38
Κύριε, τίς ἐπίστευσεν τῇ ἀκοῇ ἡμῶν; καὶ ὁ βραχίων Κυρίου τίνι ἀπεκαλύφθη;
Esaias 53:1 LXX-Septuagint
Κύριε, τίς ἐπίστευσε τῇ ἀκοῇ ἡμῶν; καὶ ὁ βραχίων Κυρίου τίνι ἀπεκαλύφθη;
Now perhaps you both might go read Exodus 3:14 from the Septuagint and you will find that it does not say "Ego eimi ["I AM"] has sent me to you" but rather "HO ON ["HE WHO IS"] has sent me to you". This is the foundational portion of a title of the Father, (YHWH) in Greek which is "ho-on-kai-ho-en-kai-ho-erchomenos" and is again referenced twice in the opening statements of Revelation, (Rev 1:4 and Rev 1:8). In other words the KJV and all translations which followed suite, (and use the Masoretic Text) are nothing more than trinitarian interpretations when it comes to this passage because the LXX-Septuagint rendering gives the meaning of 'EHYEH, (Hebrew transliteration) not as "Ego eimi" (Greek "I am") but rather as "HO ON" in the Greek, (which could also mean "THE BEING" as Brenton renders it).
This is much more critical than any here may wish to acknowledge but the reason it is so critical is because it is extremely compelling evidence that this is what the author of the Gospel of John would have believed because this is what he had before him. And again the Masoretic Text was not even in existence until about 900 years later circa 1000AD. Hope this helps, (BOOM!!!!!!!).
:sheep:
So what ultimate conclusion have you reached from applying this to Theology Proper?
Is your point merely that Jesus was not reiterating God's statement to Moses verbatim? Or are you suggesting something else entirely?
Is this your assertion against the Deity of Christ in some way? Or are you simply pointing out that the Greek written record of Jesus saying "Ego eimi" is not a direct parallel to the Hebrew text for God saying "I Am" to Moses in Exodus?
