SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
But the term used there is "rightly dividing" which means in the Greek word used, to correctly "dissect" (to "analyse" or "expound")a word or message.
:chuckle:
But the term used there is "rightly dividing" which means in the Greek word used, to correctly "dissect" (to "analyse" or "expound")a word or message.
As opposed to your mixing everything into a mess of confusion.Heir,
You demand that others, "show us all what is the word of truth and how to rightly divide it."
The only scripture that I can see pertains to this repetition of your claim, that you "rightly divide" the word, is in II Timothy 2:15.
But the term used there is "rightly dividing" which means in the Greek word used, to correctly "dissect" (to "analyse" or "expound")a word or message.
MADists seem to use the term "rightly divide" as separating words from others, or portions of the divine message from other portions, rather than soundly opening up and exploring (exegete) Holy Scripture.
??
As opposed to your mixing everything into a mess of confusion.
Heir,
You demand that others, "show us all what is the word of truth and how to rightly divide it."
The only scripture that I can see pertains to this repetition of your claim, that you "rightly divide" the word, is in II Timothy 2:15.
But the term used there is "rightly dividing" which means in the Greek word used, to correctly "dissect" (to "analyse" or "expound")a word or message.
MADists seem to use the term "rightly divide" as separating words from others, or portions of the divine message from other portions, rather than soundly opening up and exploring (exegete) Holy Scripture.
??
You posters who oppose MAD sure love to change the meanings of words and phrases in order to make your point. I like the way some opponents of MAD try to use the Greek language as some kind of "Nuclear Device" to destroy MAD. I get a kick out of that.
See?
Yes, if you don't like what it says, go back to "the Greek" and concoct your own translation.
Hath God said?
Some of your key views are Almost Acts 28, not Mad.
And you're punking out behind that, ay - very telling and...dissapointing.
I'll leave you there.
I see no point in this fool back and forth of yours on nothing but your kind of stupidity...
Sheesh; what a Mad fraud you have turned out to be.
One more parrot who only sounds in the know to the yet newbie.
The best toward you nonetheless...
In this case, it's coming from someone that thinks that God gave Adam the "old covenant" and Eve the "new covenant". :kookoo:Yes, if you don't like what it says, go back to "the Greek" and concoct your own translation.
Hath God said?
God has not lost track of the "lost" tribes.
They then turn around and assert that in the following, verses 25-29 are describing what verse 24 is saying :chuckle:
Romans 9:24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles? 9:25 As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved. 9:26 And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people; there shall they be called the children of the living God. 9:27 Esaias also crieth concerning Israel, Though the number of the children of Israel be as the sand of the sea, a remnant shall be saved: 9:28 For he will finish the work, and cut it short in righteousness: because a short work will the Lord make upon the earth. 9:29 And as Esaias said before, Except the Lord of Sabaoth had left us a seed, we had been as Sodoma, and been made like unto Gomorrha.
You're not terribly sharp, are you?Does that mean they are among us mixed with the Gentiles?
truth
You're not terribly sharp, are you?
You're getting warmer Danoh.
You claim the Romans were Gentiles.
Because Romans is a lengthy letter with many parts talking about many different things, including a lot of stuff about Israel.Why would Paul quote Hosea to Gentiles who would have had no idea who, or what Hosea was?
Was this "no mercy" a permanent abandonment?HINT: (Gen 48:19) And his father refused, and said, I know it, my son, I know it: he also shall become a people, and he also shall be great: but truly his younger brother shall be greater than he, and his seed shall become a multitude of nations.
HINT #2: Ephraim and Manasseh were NOT Jews, and their descendants that became great and a multitude of nations were not Jews. However, they were Israelites who were divorced from God, scattered, told they were not a people, and told God would not have mercy on them.
Was this "no mercy" a permanent abandonment?
Do you think that all gentiles never had any interaction with the nation of Israel ever?
I didn't imply anything. God knows all.I'm asking you to explain your answer.
You implied that God has not "lost track" of the Israelites from the 10 tribes.
I'm not God.Tell us who and where they are, or claim that they are mixed amongst the Gentiles?
All 12 tribes are scattered abroad, per James 1:1.Just explain your answer?
You're not terribly sharp, are you?
Consider ALL that I said in that post, you greasy weasel.Paul was writing to people in Rome.
It's not like they vacationed in Judah every summer.
By this YOU imply that NONE of the gentiles in Rome would have any chance of understanding "who, or what Hosea was".Why would Paul quote Hosea to Gentiles who would have had no idea who, or what Hosea was?