ECT Do those who believe MAD have no problem disregarding what Jesus actually taught ?

[Lighthouse]

Still NOT even 1 teaching from Jesus that says or even implies 2 gospels.

Because there isn't one.

All those scriptures mean is that Paul was sent to preach the gospel to the gentiles and Peter was sent to preach the gospel to the Jews.

Same message of Grace different folks with different backgrounds.

Then why was Peter sent to baptize and Paul was not?

YOU cannot find 1 place where Jesus taught or even implied that there was 1 gospel for Jews and another for gentiles.

Because He didn't.

Anyone saved is saved through GRACE provided by Jesus.[./quote]
Yes.

You keep repeating a false narrative. The verses you quoted means that Paul was to preach the gospel to the Gentiles and Peter was to preach the SAME gospel to the Jews. yet, to stay in your error you create confusion, ignore Jesus, Paul, the OT and the other Apostles who all preached the same gospel.

Where is your proof that the message was the same?

Unlike many Those who follow Jesus actually believe HE meant what HE taught.

Of course He meant it. Every word. What of it?

Paul NEVER said water baptism was not necessary towards a good conscience NO WHERE.

He also never said it was. At best you have an argument from silence, which is no argument at all because you have no evidence to back it up. We can back up our argument that Paul was not sent to baptize.

You are adding words that PAUL NEVER SAID, and that is very dangerous ground.

No she didn't. All she did was state that he never preached water baptism for the remission of sins. And he never did. It is nowhere to be found in his epistles.

Gal 3:26
For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.

There it is again in verse 26 = one gospel

Gal 3:27
For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.

Paul does not say it is not a water baptism in verse 27 could it be that madist cannot see these verses or understand these 2 verses.

We were baptized in His death. And according to John the Baptist Jesus doesn't baptize withe water.

It'd be interesting to know from the madists why Paul baptized?

Because there's nothing wrong with it.

Jesus said to the pharisees, "blasphemy against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven in this life or the next".

A few years later. Jesus forgives a pharisee for blasphemy against the Holy Spirit.

So that makes Jesus a liar from a mad perspective, doesn't it?

1. It does not make Jesus a liar even if that were the case, because as we've said, the rules changed.
2. That's not the case. Paul didn't blaspheme the Spirit.

Was water baptism the baptism of repentance that John introduced?

Yes.

 

[tetelestai]

So was Peter a Jew or a 10 triber?

Peter was a Jew:

(Gal 2:14) I said to Cephas in front of them all, "You are a Jew, yet you live like a Gentile and not like a Jew.

1Pet 4:1 (AKJV/PCE)​

(4:1) Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin;

​

The "us" in the above verse refers to all mankind.

So this joining occurred at the cross?

Absolutely.

 

[tetelestai]

RD is right;

Nope.

Wrong Divider is wrong.

a person would have to retroactively read the NT with all kinds of new "us" and "them" in mind.

Correct.

 

[patrick jane]

Nope.

Wrong Divider is wrong.



Correct.

Pathetic

 

[tetelestai]

No, you idiot - both houses are nevertheless Israelite.

That's right. Both houses are Israelites.

They began that way, and that was ever in mind when they separated, and that was/is in mind during their scattering abroad.

The 10 tribes were divorced from God, scattered, told they were not a people, and told God would have no mercy on them.

So....the Israelites from the 10 tribes were very different from the Jews.

This is why Paul goes back and forth between his assertion that he is a debtor to the Jew and his assertion he wants to save some Israelites, as well as why he goes back and forth between OT passages describing the one and other passages describing the other.

Paul was a Pharisee, and understood the distinction between the two houses.

Unlike you, who is clueless.

There they all are as one in Daniel's mind in his prayer Daniel 9;

Daniel's prayer took place when the Jews from the House of Judah were captive in Babylon, and the Israelites from the House of Israel had been removed from their country by the Assyrians.

Learn history Danoh !!!!

When Daniel was alive, there were two houses.

in that half-breed Samaritan women's mind as to THEIR Christ in John 4;

Was she a Jew?

She said her father was Jacob.

She also said to Jesus: "You are a Jew and I am a Samaritan woman"

Notice the distinction.

in the Lord's mind as to His "other sheep not of this fold" in John 10:16;

Who were the other sheep?

One nation under God is ever God's intent as to both houses - of Israel - you incompetent.

When did/does the stick of Joseph get joined with the stick of Judah?

Just as many of them had been coming together each Pentecost.

Ezekiel makes it clear that the two sticks were divided, and that one day they would be joined together.

So, you can't have it both ways.

When were the two sticks joined together? Dispies claim that hasn't happened yet. So, if it hasn't happened yet, then you can't say there were together each Pentecost. If they were joined together, then you can't deny the New Covenant.

Which is it Danoh?

But you follow the lost Roman Catholic Jusuit Priest Luis Alcazar - his same twisted mind is yours.

Preterism can be traced back hundreds of years before Alcazar. Unlike Dispensationalism, which cannot be found before Darby.

 

[tetelestai]

Yep, Scripture uses 'Jacob' to encompass all twelve tribes as in:

Luk 1:33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.

When were the two houses united? Were they united?

Be careful steko, remember that time you told me the destruction and the Christians fleeing to the hills was fulfilled?

 

[tetelestai]

Paul calls himself and Israelite, a Pharisee and a Jew and of the tribe of Benjamin.

Correct.

Jews are Israelites.

When the nation split, the tribes of Judah and Benjamin became the House of Judah, and the Southern kingdom of Judah.

What you Darby followers fail to understand is that the Israelites from the 10 Northern tribes who were the House of Israel were never Jews.

The first time the word "Jew" is found in the KJB, the Jews were at war against Israel.

 

[tetelestai]

THIS is why Jacob is mentioned during those seeming no turning back for God, critical times in Israel's rebellious history.

(Ezk 37:16-17) Son of man, take a stick of wood and write on it, ‘Belonging to Judah and the Israelites associated with him.’ Then take another stick of wood, and write on it, ‘Belonging to Joseph (that is, to Ephraim) and all the Israelites associated with him.’ 17 Join them together into one stick so that they will become one in your hand.

When did this happen Danoh?

 

[Right Divider]

Peter was a Jew:

(Gal 2:14) I said to Cephas in front of them all, "You are a Jew, yet you live like a Gentile and not like a Jew.

The "us" in the above verse refers to all mankind.

Absolutely.

I thought that you said that 1 Peter was written to the 10 tribes, but now you say that they were already joined with the Jews when Peter wrote it.

You need a new story that's actually true.

 

[tetelestai]

I thought that you said that 1 Peter was written to the 10 tribes,

Correct.

It's impossible that Peter's audience were Jews, because the Jews were NEVER told that they were not a people. Nor were the Jews ever told that God would NOT have mercy on them.

but now you say that they were already joined with the Jews when Peter wrote it.

Christ Jesus united the two houses when He made the NC with His shed blood.

You need a new story that's actually true.

You have been brainwashed by Dispensationalism into believing that 1 Peter was written to Jews. That's impossible after reading Hosea 1.

 

[Right Divider]

Correct.

It's impossible that Peter's audience were Jews, because the Jews were NEVER told that they were not a people. Nor were the Jews ever told that God would NOT have mercy on them.

Christ Jesus united the two houses when He made the NC with His shed blood.

You have been brainwashed by Dispensationalism into believing that 1 Peter was written to Jews. That's impossible after reading Hosea 1.

Your completely selective use of Hosea wrong.

You read some, ignore the rest. Hosea has 14 chapter and not just your favorite couple of verses.

If Israel and Judah were joined at the cross, why is Peter keeping them separate years later?

 

[tetelestai]

Your completely selective use of Hosea wrong.

Hosea is a typology of the Northern nation of Israel. Hosea marries a harlot (Gomer), and has three children (no mercy, not a people, and scattered)

Lo-ruhamah, Lo-ami, and Jezreel.

You read some, ignore the rest. Hosea has 14 chapter and not just your favorite couple of verses.

It's very clear in the book of Hosea what's going on. See above.

If Israel and Judah were joined at the cross, why is Peter keeping them separate years later?

It wasn't a flick of the switch.

Peter didn't keep them separate, Peter preached to them, and told them that they were a people, and that they were now joined with the House of Judah.

Hosea 1:6-11 tells us that when the Israelites from the 10 tribes are told they are a people (which Peter did in 1 Peter 2:10) THEN is when the two houses are joined together.

That's what happened in the first century.

 

[Interplanner]

Peter preached to them, and told them that they were a people, and that they were now joined with the House of Judah.


??? When was this?

 

[Right Divider]

Hosea is a typology of the Northern nation of Israel. Hosea marries a harlot (Gomer), and has three children (no mercy, not a people, and scattered)

Lo-ruhamah, Lo-ami, and Jezreel.

It's very clear in the book of Hosea what's going on. See above.

It wasn't a flick of the switch.

Peter didn't keep them separate, Peter preached to them, and told them that they were a people, and that they were now joined with the House of Judah.

Hosea 1:6-11 tells us that when the Israelites from the 10 tribes are told they are a people (which Peter did in 1 Peter 2:10) THEN is when the two houses are joined together.

That's what happened in the first century.

So 1 Peter was not written to gentiles then. I'm glad that we got this all straightened out.

James is written to all twelve tribes but 1 Peter is only written to 10 of those 12 tribes.

Thanks for making this all clear and that these two books are not written to the gentiles.

 

[tetelestai]

So 1 Peter was not written to gentiles then. I'm glad that we got this all straightened out.

It wasn't written to Jews, despite what Darby taught you.

Look up the definition of "Gentile".

Let's cut to the chase:

When were the two houses joined together?

 

[tetelestai]

Peter preached to them, and told them that they were a people, and that they were now joined with the House of Judah.


??? When was this?

After the cross. The first century.

Which proves they were still two separated houses before the cross because no one had ever told them they were a people (as prophesied in Hosea) before Peter did.

 

[Interplanner]

It wasn't written to Jews, despite what Darby taught you.

Look up the definition of "Gentile".

Let's cut to the chase:

When were the two houses joined together?

But did Peter mean that in an ordinary sense? Look at all the old covenant imagery in 2:5-10.

 

[tetelestai]

But did Peter mean that in an ordinary sense?

Mean what?

Look at all the old covenant imagery in 2:5-10.

Mostly from Isaiah.

Go back and study Isaiah, Josiah, Assyria, Babylon, Tiglath-Pileser III, Shalmaneser V, Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz and Hezekiah.

Then, it will make sense to you.

 

[Right Divider]

It wasn't written to Jews, despite what Darby taught you.

Look up the definition of "Gentile".

Let's cut to the chase:

When were the two houses joined together?

You love to fixate on certain topics.

My point a long time back is that Paul writes primarily to us gentiles, whereas SOME books are written to other audiences.

Some are SUPER simple to identify, like JAMES and HEBREWS.

Who is the holy nation and the royal priesthood? Clue: not the gentiles.... (another hint: there are 12 tribes in it).

Paul never even ONCE refers to us gentiles are priests or that we are part of a priesthood.

Something is seriously wrong if Paul just forgot.

 

[tetelestai]

You love to fixate on certain topics.

My point a long time back is that Paul writes primarily to us gentiles, whereas SOME books are written to other audiences.

Some are SUPER simple to identify, like JAMES and HEBREWS.

Who is the holy nation and the royal priesthood? Clue: not the gentiles.... (another hint: there are 12 tribes in it).

Paul never even ONCE prefers to us gentiles are priests or that we are part of a priesthood.

Something is seriously wrong if Paul just forgot.

You didn't answer the question.

Were the two houses joined together?

If so, when?

If not, when will they be joined together?